SYBMS - SEM IV

MCQ –

Multiple Choice Questions -

SAMPLE MCQ -

AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI SYLLABUS

Will be helpful to regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V class of students.

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ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD

CLASS: S.Y.B.M.S

SUB : INTEGRATED MARKETING COMMUNICATION

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1)IMC was developed to achieve consistency across_____________ communication.

a) Finance b) Economic c) Marketing d) Tele Marketing

2) IMC strategies include_________ audience.

a) Target b) Mix c) Real d) Time

3)____________objective is for companies who want their previous customer back.

a) Trial b) Marketing c) Continuity d) Switching back

4)_________is defined as a paid form of non personal communication.

a) Budgeting b) Communication c) Advertising d) Allocating

5) During the ___________, many companies came to see the need for more integration.

a) 1987 b) 1989 c) 2000 d) 2005

6) IMC is a ___________concept.

a) Selling b) Buying c) Management d) Technical

7)___________ represent the starting point for all marketing communication activities.

a) Shareholder b) Supplier c) Investor d) Customer

8)___________ is the introduction stage for companies.

a) Brand switch b) Switching back c) Trial d) Continuity

9)In_________, organization communicate directly with target customers.

a) Advertising b) online Marketing c) internet Marketing d) Direct Marketing

10) SEM means ___________.

a) Save engine marketing b) Search engine marketing c) Simple engine marketing d) Semi engine Machine

11)___________ is defined as those marketing activities that provide incentives to the sales force.

a) Telemarketing b) Internet marketing c) Publicity d) Sales promotion

12) ECRM means___________.

a) Electronic cash relationship management b) Electronic customer relationship management

c) Electronic customer relationship method d) Electronic credit relationship management

13) Internet marketing also known as _____________.

a) Outsource Marketing b) Online marketing c) Direct marketing d) Fundamental marketing

14) Publicity is the _____________ communication.

a) Inter-personal b) Personal c) Non personal d) Intra personal

15) _______ means a maintaining positive image of the company among it’s various publics.

a) Sales Promotion b) Marketing c) Advertising d) Public relations

16)__________ is a form of person-to-person communication.

a) Mobile marketing b) Social marketing c) Telephone Marketing d) Personal selling

17) Sponsorships is also known as ___________.

a) Event marketing b) Personal selling c) Advertising d) Public relations

18) The person, who intends to make contact with objective of passing information an idea

to another person’s is known as ____________

a) Channel b) Sender c) Receiver d) Message

19) _____________ involves communicating with the consumer via cellular device.

a) Online Marketing b) Social marketing c) Media marketing d) Mobile marketing

20) The first step in the IMC planning process is to __________ the marketing plan.

a) Analysis b) Implementation c) Budget d) Review

21)_____________ is the process of promoting business or websites through social media channels.

a) Social media marketing b) Event marketing c) Direct Marketing d) Mobile marketing

22) Internal analysis is assessing the __________ of the firm.

A) Services b) Strengths c) Segments d) Sources

23) The word communication is derived from the Latin word___________.

a) Casual b) Communis c) Common d) Commit

24) ___________ is the subject matter of Communication.

a) Medium b) Machine c) Method d) Message

25)__________ is very important element of the Communication.

a) Feedback b) Receiver c) Channel d) Method

26)____________ is the party for whom the message is meant.

a) buyer b)Supplier c) Sender d) Receiver.

27) Unplanned distortion is called as _________.

a) Approach b) Noise c) Closing d) Application

28) The AIDA model was presented by __________.

a) Maslaw b)Robert Levidge c) Elmo Lewis d) Gary Steiner

29) __________ is the first stage in the Innovation Adoption model.

a) Awareness b) Interest c) Evaluation d) Advice

30) _____________ is a short-term activity to stimulate sales.

a) Packaging b) Normal advertising c) Public relations d) Sale promotion

31) A________ strategy refers to the customer actively seeking out for the product.

a) Pull strategy b) Push strategy c) Pick strategy d) Pack Strategy

32)__________ is the marketing techniques aimed at increasing demand for products

In retail stores.

A) Trading b) Trimming c) Training d) Trade promotion

33)Under ___________ scheme customers are given assurance that full value of the product will

be returned to them if they are not satisfied.

a) Trading stamps b) Samples c) Coupons d) Money back offer

34) ___________ Communication is an initiative taken by organizations to make their products

and services popular among the end- users.

a) Bond b) Brand c) Batch d) Band

35) Exterior display is also known as ___________.

a) Fairs b) Window display c) Exhibition d) Secret Reserve

36) _____________ is also known as cinema advertising.

a) Indoor advertising b) Radio advertising c) Film advertising d) Outdoor advertising

37) ______________ is conducted by government departments to promote Public awareness.

a) Consumer oriented advertising b) Financial advertising c) Government advertising

d) Producer oriented advertising

38) The world has become a ___________ market.

a) Reserve b) Super market c) Global market d) Consumer market

39) Advertising involves the ___________ Communication.

a) One way Communication b) Two-way Communication c) Verbal communication d) Non verbal Communication

40)___________ is an approach where a budgetary amount is established and then passed

to many departments.

a) The affordable approach b) Scale-down approach c) Top-down approach d) Bottom-up approach

41) According to _________ model the ultimate objective of advertising involves a communication task, intended to create awareness, impart information, develop attitude and induce action.

a) DAGMAR b)AIDA c) TGMR d)MCA

42) ___________ proposed model of attitude change.

a) William McGuire b) Elmo Lewis c) Maslaw d) DAGMAR

43) ___________ stage refers to the receiver’s feelings for the particular brand.

a) Application b) Cognitive c) Conative d) Affective

44)____________ is one of the oldest types of advertising media.

a) Direct mail b) Door mail c) Direct map d) Door map

45) ____________ is a type of advertising is also known as Mural advertising.

a) Secret Reserve b) Window display b) Television advertising c) Outdoor advertising

46) Advertising is an _____________.

a) Science b) Commerce c) Art d) Management

47) ____________ is an effective tool for market promotion.

a) Selling b) Buying c) Learning d) Advertising

48)___________ is the objective concerned about keeping the existing customers to stick on to the product.

a) Trial b) Continuity c) Brand Image d) Brand switch

49) The basic tool use to achieve organization Communication objective is known as ____________.

a) Product mix b) Promotional mix c) People mix d) Patent mix

50) ____________ advantage refers to the advantage offered by the firm’s product over the competitors product.

a) Coordination b) Commission c) Communication d) Competitive

CLASS: SYBMS - IV SEM REGULAR

SUB : Business Research Methods

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1. _____ is a systemic investigation to search for new facts in any branch of knowledge.

a) Research b) Sampling c) Design d) Processing

2. Research uses _____ method to find facts to provide solutions to specific problems.

a) Traditional b) Modern c) Scientific d) Mathematical

3. The _____ research is objective and logical in nature.

a) Traditional b) Scientific c) Modern d) Empirical

4. _____ research is designed to solve practical problems of the modern world, rather than to acquire knowledge for knowledge’s sake.

a) Applied b) Scientific c) Empirical d) Traditional

5. Basic or _____ research is driven by scientist’s curiosity or interest in a scientific question.

a) Scientific b) Fundamental c) Empirical d) Generalisation

6. The main goal of basic research is to expand _____.

a) Science b) Solve problems c) Man’s knowledge d) Design

7. _____ research is undertaken to study certain situations or events based on experiments, observations and surveys.

a) Empirical b) Scientific c) Basic d) Applied

8. A _____ research helps to develop new principals and theories.

a) Empirical b) Scientific c) Basic d) Systematic

9. _____ is a multipurpose activity.

a) Research b) Processing c) Report d) Design

10. Research undertaken to measure quantity or amount is called as _____ research.

a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Quantitative d) Basic

11. Research which is undertaken to find out the quality of a particular situation or phenomenon is called as _____ research.

a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Quantitative d) Basic

12. Research is undertaken to obtain _____ which may not be easily obtained during the ordinary course of functioning of an institute.

a) Drawings b) Design c) Information d) Facts

13. _____ can gain significantly with help of research.

a) School b) Individual c) Business organization d) Drawings

14. _____ is possible through marketing research, a business firm can identify the customer requirements and therefore it is possible to design new models or to modify existing to satisfy the customers.

a) Product development b) Price c) Market d) Distribution

15. The proactive decisions confer _____ to the firm.

a) Profit b) Design c) Competitive advantage d) Sales

16. For ____ research may be undertaken, which helps to design for instance recruitment and selection.

a) Human resource plans and policies b) Performance appraisal c) Promotion and transfers d) Monetary policy

17. In financial management research may be undertaken for efficient management of finance like _____.

a) Training to employees b) Sources of funds c) Promotion and transfers d) Recruitment and selection

18. _____ research is also called as pure or fundamental research.

a) Basic b) Applied c) Empirical d) Market

19. Basic research advances _____ knowledge about the world.

a) Applied b) Scientific c) Fundamental d) Market

20. _____ research is scientific study designed to solve practical problems rather than merely acquiring knowledge.

a) Applied b) Empirical c) Social d) Pure

21. _____ working in human factors or organisations undertake applied research.

a) Workers b) Respondents c) Psychologists d) Universe

22. _____ research can be defined as research based on experimentation or observation.

a) Empirical b) Applied c) Traditional d) Modern

23. _____ research deals with the behaviour of people in their different roles such as consumers, learners, trainers etc.

a) Historical b) Social science c) Exploratory d) Empirical

24. _____ research is a process of critical inquiry into past events in order to produce an accurate description and interpretation of those events.

a) Historical b) Scientific c) Exploratory d) Empirical

25. _____ research is conducted to explore information about the nature or causes of research problems.

a) Social science b) Empirical c) Exploratory d) Historical

26. _____ research provides data about the population or universe being studied.

a) Empirical b) Exploratory c) Historical d) Descriptive

27. _____ research investigates cause-effect relationship between two or more variables.

a) Casual b) Descriptive c) Historical d) Empirical

28. _____ variables take on values either within a given range or from an infinite set.

a) Non-continuous b) Continuous c) Independent d) Dependent

29. _____ variable which is expected to be affected by the manipulation of IV.

a) Non -continuous b) Continuous c) Independent d) Dependent

30. _____ variable is directly not related to the purpose of the study but may affect the DV.

a) Extraneous b) Intervening c) Independent d) Dependent

31. The _____ is a tentative assumption made to test its logical or empirical consequences.

a) Review of literature b) Research design c) Hypothesis d) Research problem

32. _____ is a logical and systematic plan prepared for conducting a research study.

a) Research design b) Research report c) Research analysis d) Research processing

33. If the researcher cannot solve the problem with the help of secondary data, observation and experimentation then he should make efforts to collect the primary data from the field for which he requires a _____.

a) Sample b) Universe c) Questionnaire d) Respondent

34. Problem solving is essentially a process of _____.

a) Collecting information b) Designing c) Survey d) Processing

35. The collected data is mostly available in a raw form and therefore, it needs to be _____.

a) Analysis b) Processed c) Interpretation d) Designed

36. Organisation of data is generally followed by its analysis and _____.

a) Interpretation b) Processing c) Coding d) Tabulation

37. The research findings and conclusions are presented with the help of _____.

a) Research report b) Research design c) Research sample d) Preliminary contents

38. From below given options select characteristics of good research:

a) Related to available technique b) Technique of analysis c) Objective and logical d) Baseless

39. _____ is a blueprint of the research activity.

a) Research design b) Research report c) Research analysis d) Pilot study

40. _____ is a research activity undertaken on a small segment of the research universe.

a) Sample b) Pilot study c) Research design d) Research report

41. The _____ suggests which type of research is likely to be most appropriate in solving the research problem.

a) Sample b) Hypothesis c) Pilot study d) Research design

42. _____ provides guidelines to the researcher in respect of what data to be collected?

a) Sample b) Hypothesis c) Pilot study d) Research design

43. The sources of data depends upon the _____.

a) Research problem b) Research design c) Pilot study d) Hypothesis

44. The selection of area depends upon _____.

a) Money b) Intelligence c) Location of respondents d) Number of researcher

45. The _____ should not be rigid.

a) Research design b) Research problem c) Pilot study d) Sample

46. A _____ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to a survey or for the purpose of experimentation in order to collect relevant information to solve a particular problem.

a) Research problem b) Pilot study c) Sample d) Respondents

47. _____ sampling is also known as random sampling.

a) Probability b) Simple sampling c) Stratified d) Cluster

48. _____ sampling involves multiple stages in sample design.

a) Probability b) Cluster c) Multistage d) Stratified

49. _____ sampling is also called as deliberate sampling.

a) Non-probability b) Cluster c) Multistage d) Stratified

50. Researchers uses _____ sampling method when the sample for the study is very rare or limited.

a) Convenient b) Judgement c) Snowball d) Stratified

CLASS: S.Y.BMS SEM 4

SUB : AUDITING

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1. Current file and permanent file are together known as

a) Audit plan b) Audit programme c)Audit procedure d) Audit working papers

2. When auditors use documents to support recorded transactions, the process is called as

a) Inquiry b) Confirmation c) inspection d) observation

3. Repair to Machinery had been charged to Machinery A/C this is

a) Error of omission b) Error of Commission c) Error of principle d) Commission error

4. A fraud that involves theft of entity’s assets.

a) Manipulation of records b) secret reserve c) misappropriation of d) Income smoothing.

5. Audit means

a) Recording business transactions b) examination of books accounts and vouchers c)preparing final accounts d) calculate assets

6. Current Audit file relating to audit of partnership firm will not contain

a) Audit plan b) Audit Programme c)Letters of confirmation d) Partnership deed

7. An example of external document is

a) Employee time report b) bank statements c) purchase order for company purchase d) carbon copies of cheques

8. Audit programme may be

a) Statutory b) Permanent c) fixed or flexible d) standard

9. Whixh of the following SA deals with Audit planning.

a) SA610 b) SA300 c) SA620 d) SA230

10. Working papers are the property of the

a) Client b) Client and Auditor c) Auditor d) government

11. Systematic examination of books and records of a business is known as

a) Auditing b) Vouching c) Verification d) Checking

12. An example of document originating from and held by the entity being audited is an

a) Confirmation b) sales invoice c) vendor invoice d) bank reconciliation

13. Audit programme is prepared by

a) The client b) The client and the auditor c) The auditor and his assistants d) The chief accountant

14. A credit sale wrongly passed through the purchases book This is

a) Error of Omission b) Error of Principle c) Error of principle d) Numerical error

15. Which of the following is the least likely to uncover fraud.

a) Internal Auditors b) Management c) Internal Controls d) External Auditors

16. If several employees collude to falsify documents the chance a normal audit would uncover such acts is

a) Very low b) very high c)zero d) fifty fifty

17. The responsibility of preparation of financial statements belong to.

a) Auditor b) both management and auditor c) Management d) government

18. Audit plan should be based on knowledge of clients

a) Profits b)Business c) Net worth d) Reputation

19. The link between clients records and auditor’s report.

a) News b) Ruled c) Loose d) Working

20. Balance Sheet Audit includes verification of

a) Assets b) Liabilities c) Income and expenses Accrued d) All the items

21. Window dressing is most likely to be committed by

a) Company Management b) Company Auditors c)Outside Members d)None of the above.

22. Who is responsible for prevention and detection of errors and frauds.

a) Accountantt b) Management c) Cashier d)Auditor

23. The total of sales book was not posted to the ledger. This is

a) Error of Commission b)Error of Omission c)Error of principle d) Numerical error

24. Audit working papers record

a) The Audit plan b)The audit procedures performed c) The conclusion drawn from the evidence obtained d) All the things

25. A financial audit is intended to give

a) Reasonable assurance b) Absolute assurance c) Qualified assurance d) Positive assurance

26. Audit of banks of an example of

a) Statutory Audit b) Balance Sheet Audit c) Concurrent audit d)all audit

27. Comply with laws and regulations

a) Auditor is responsible b)both are responsible c) Management is responsible d)Neither is responsible

28. Audit under statute means

a) An audit ordered by the government b) An audit where duties, rights etc. Of the auditor are laid down by law c)An audit ordered by courts d)An audit under legal contract

29. If the financial statements are prepared as per the financial reporting framework the auditor gives an opinion that the financial statements

a) Are true and correct b)Are correct and fair c) Give a true and fair view d)Are reliable

30. Balance Sheet Audit doesn’t include

a) Verification of assets and liabilities b) Vouching of income and expenses

b) Examination of adjusting and closing entries d)Routine check

31. Fraud is a

a) Malafide Act b) Bonafide Act c) Assurance d) internal control

32. The primary objective of financial audit is to

a) Examine the accounts b) Scrutinize financial statements c) Express opinion on financial statement d) Point out over statement

33. The Auditor’s best defence when material frauds are not discovered is to have conducted the audit

a) As pr audit programme b) in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards c)in a timely manner d) on assumption

34. The most common way for users to obtain reliable information is to

a) Have internal audit b)verify information c)have independent audit d) verify information with management

35. Companies may internationally understate earnings to create

a) Statutory reserve b) window dressing c) sales d) secret reserves

36. The auditor should plan his work to enable him to conduct the audit in which manner

a) Professional b) An efficient and timely c) A confident d) A proper

37. Physical examination is the inspection or count by auditor of items such as

a) Cash inventory payroll b) cash inventory sales document c) cash inventory intangible fixed assets d) cash inventory tangible fixed assets

38. Working papers are property

a) Bank b) Auditor c) Management d) Directors

39. Which SA deal with audit working papers

a) SA3 b)SA9 c)SA10 d)SA1

40. Trial balance for year under audit will be filed in the

a) Permanent b) Current c)Time d) assessment year

41. Steps taken to obtain audit evidence

a) Audit technique b)Audit notebook c)Audit method d)Audit procedure

42. Error means which mistake

a) Malafide b) Bonafide c) wrong d) No difference

43. In which type of audit final accounts are prepared immediately after year end

a) Periodic b) balance sheet c) continuous d)overall

44. Which SA deals with materiality

a) SA6 b) SA320 c)SA300 d)SA100

45. Which type of audit is done quarterly

a) Interim b) balance sheet c) continuous d) mid audit

46. Fraud is which type of mistake

a) Unintentional b) intentional c) right d) wrong

47. To show a good image of the company what is done

a) Window dressing b) secret reserve c) Auditing d)vouching

48. Balance sheet audit is done when the control system is

a) Hard b) strong c) weak d)Low

49. Audit planning involves

a)overall audit b)audit techniques c)working paper d)overall planning

50. The process to verify balance at end of year

a) Vouching b)Auditing c) planning d) verification

CLASS: S.Y.B.M.S – IV SEM REGULAR

SUB : IT IN BUSINESS MANAGEMENT

MCQ ( 50 QUESTIONS)

1 Full form of MIS is

1 Managing information system 2 Mental Information system

3 Men Information System 4 Management Information system

2 ______ is an area of computer science that emphasies the creation of intelligent machines that work and react like humans.

1 Aero craft Intelligence 2 Artificial Intelligence

3 Area intelligence 4 Artificial Intel

3 _________ is the art of getting things done by others .

1 information 2 System 3 Management 4 MIS

4 __________ provide interface between users and information system.

1 Software 2 Hardware 3 Component 4 Database

7 A ______ is a centrally controlled collection of organised data

1 Process 2 Database 3 Procedure 4 Software

8 ________ decision are those that are easily made from a given set of inputs.

1 Semi –structured 2 Structured 3 Unstructured 4 Ability to adapt

9________ driven DSSs are complex system that help analyse decisions choose between different options.

1 Dada 2 Model 3 Communication 4 Model

10 A DSS used n medicine is called _________ DSS.

1 Food management 2 Clinical 3General 4 Budget variance

11 Acronym ERP stands for _________

1 Entity Resource Painting 2 Energy Resource Planning

3 Entity Resource Planning 4 Entity Research Planning

12 A key ERP principle is the _________for wide distribution.

1 Central collection of data 2 wide collection of data

2 central collection of research 4 wide collection of research

13 Acronym SCM stands for_________

1 Super Chain Management 2 Supply Chain Management

3 Supply Choice Management 4 Supply Chain Marketing

14 Acronym CRM stands for _________

1 Customer Relationship Management 2 Customer Resource Management

3 Cost Research Management 4 Cost relationship Management

15 ________ is a repository of an organisation ‘s electronically stored data.

1 Inventory 2 Data Warehouse 3 Sales 4 Supply chain

16_________ module can be used to track the stock of item .

1 Data Warehouse 2 Inventory 3 Quality Management 4 Stock Maintanance

17 In computer system security ___________ is an approach of restricting system access to authorised users .

1 RBAC 2 ABRAC 3 RABC 4 ACBA

18_____ ERP is logical step of ERP

1 Important 2 Extented 3 Extra 4 Enabled

19______ is ERP soft ware developed by German company SAPSE.

1 ORACLE – ERP 2 SAP- ERP 3 SYSTEM ERP 4 SAPSE ERP

20 According to Gartner Group “ _____ is a business strategy designed to optimise profitability, revenue , and customer satisfaction “

1 SCM 2 ESCM 3 CRM 4 COM

21 Acronym for E-CRM _______CRM

1 Extended 2 Electronic 3 Electrical 4 Elective

22 _____ is the process of finding useful pattern and relationship in large volume of data

1 Information Security 2 Data Security 3 Data Mining 4 Data Modification

23________ is the flow of material , information , money and services from raw material suppliers through factories and warehouse to end customer.

1 Supply chain 2 Supply system 3 super supply 4 system supply

24_______ modules helps to HR team for efficient management of Human Resource

1 Human Research 2 Human Resource 3 ERP 4 SCM

25 _______ is carried out in the post implementation of the ERP implementation .

1 Management 2 Reimplementation 3 Maintenance 4 Application

CLASS: S.Y.B.M.S (Marketing) – IV SEM REGULAR

SUB : Rural Marketing

MCQ ( 50 QUESTIONS)

1 A set of basic values perceptions , wants and behaviours learned by a member of society from family and other important institution s is known as _____

1 society 2 culture 3 sub culture 4 society Values

2 ______ is the process of face to face interaction between the sales person and the prospective customer .

1 personal selling 2 customer relationship management 3 public relations 4 Communication

3 Under the _________ promotion special incentives are provided to dealers on the number of unit sold to the ultimate customer .

1 pull up sale 2 pop up sale 3 push up sale 4 free gift

4______ are the weekly markets from where rural people buy the item of daily necessities ,garments , farm inputs etc.

1 Haats 2 Meals 3 Dashavtars 4 Eady mrket

5 Scattered nature is the future of ________.

1 rural market 2 urban market 3 semi rural market 4 semi urban market

6 Pomes is an example of _______

1 spell alike 2 duplicates 3 look alike 4 after look

7 E-chopual was started by ______

1 ITC 2Unilever 3P&G 4 Reliance

8_____ quality certification mark for agricultural produce .

1 BIS 2 AGMARK 3 ISO 2000 4 ISI

9__________ is an example of opinion leader

1 School 2 Sarpanch 3 Newspaper 4 Radio

10 Green revolution takes place in the year ________

1 1965-68 2 1981-85 3 1991-93 4 1995-98

11 In India , the ______ has been taking place throughout the rural areas

1 Green revolution 2 Industrial revolution 3 liberalisation 3 Industrialisation

12_________ revolutionised village lifestyle by starting e-choupals

1 ITC 2Computer 3 Internet 4 Software

13The ______ pattern dictates the pattern of income generation

1 Occupation 2Income 3 Expenditure 4 Expense

14_________ provided assistance to the to rural poor in the form of subsidy and bank credit

1 IRDP 2 PMGYS 3 SGSY 4 EAS

15________ is an seasonal activity and not an organised one .

1 Agricultural 2 Semi cultural 3 Vermiculture 4 safe cultural

Unit 2

16 There is tremendous scope for new companies to penetrate the ________ market

1 Urban 2 Rural 3 Semi urban 4 semi rural

17 Consumer behaviour is the result of interaction of consumer with _______ forces .

1 environmental 2 marketing 3 political 4 general

18 In rural India the basic _______ values have not been feed .

1 Cultural 2 Ethical 3 Moral 4 Social

19_____ factors have an impact on the occupation and lifestyle of the rural people .

1 Technological 2 Economic 3 Socio – Cultural 4 Semi technological

20 _________ behaviour involves a three step process .

1 Complex buying 2 Habitual buying 3 Variety seeking 4 Conceptual buying

21 Marketing of Agri – products is done from _____

1 Rural to urban 2 urban to rural 3 Semirural to urban 4 urban to urban

22FMcg constitute a Major portion of _________ market

1 Urban 2 Rural 3 Semi urban 4 Standard

23 Competition in rural market is _____

1 Normal 2 Complex 3 Not occurred 4 minimum

24 Amul is an example of __________ Business model

1 semi corporate 2 Industries 3 cooperative 4 Rural

25 _____ is the driving force within individual that compels them to action

1 Hard work 2 satisfaction 3 Dishonest 4 Motivation

CLASS: SYBMS

SUBJECT:STRATEGIC COST MANAGEMENT

1. ERP stands for _______________

A] Entrepreneur Role Planning B]Enterprise Resource Planning

C] Expert Role planning D]Entity Record Process

2. Fixed cost is a cost which

A]which remains same irrespective of the changes in output

B]which is partly fixed and partly variable

C]which remains same for each unit of output

D]which changes with the changes in output.

3. Which of the following is not a type of waste?

A] transportation b]Advertising C]Over processing D]Defects and rework

4.TQM stands for ___________
A]Total Quantity Management B] Total Quotation Management

C] Total Quality Management D]Total Quick Management

4. The 4P’s of TQM does not include ___________

A]People B]Product C]Problem D]Process

5. The six C’s of TQM does not include__________

A]Control B]Co-operation C] Culture D]Cost

6. Total cost of the product is Rs.12000, Profit is 25% on selling price.

Profit =__________

A]3,000 B]5000 C]4000 D]3200

7. ABC stands for ____________

A] Always Better Control B] Activity Based Costing C]Allotment Based Costing

D]Apportion Based Costing

8. J-I-T stands for _____________

A] Just In Take B]Just In Token C]Just In Trick D]Just In Time

9. J-I-T technique was introduced in ___________

A] China B]America C]Japan D]Korea

10. J-I-T technique was introduced by ____________

A]Toyota motors B]Infosys Ltd C]Reliance Ltd D]Maruti motors

11. P-L-C stands for ____________

A] Price Life Cycle B]Product Life Cycle C]People Life Cycle D] Process Life Cycle

12. Backflush Accounting records the transaction only at the ___________ of the production and sales cycle.

A] Start B]Termination C]Middle D] intermediate stage

13.The term “Kaizen” was popularized by _____________ in his book “Kaizen:The key to Japan’s competitive success”.

A]Adolf Hitler B]Winston Churchill C] Henry Fayol D]Mosaki Imai

13. The Japansese words “Kai” and “Zen” translates into __________

A]Consider long term Goals B]Threat from competitors C] Introduce substitute products D]To break apart and investigate

14. A product life cycle comprises of _________ stages.

A] two b] three C]four D]five

15. The first stage of product life cycle is ____________

A] Introduction stage B]Growth stage C]Maturity Stage D]Decline stage

16. The last stage of product life cycle is ____________

A] Introduction stage B]Growth stage C]Maturity Stage D]Decline stage

17. __________ is a cost that will be incurred in the future because of decisions that have already been made in the past.

A]Fixed cost B]Committed cost C]Step cost D]Variable cost

18. _____________ refers to ongoing continuous improvement program that focuses on the reduction of waste in the production process and thereby further lowering costs.

A] ABC costing B]Life cycle costing C]Kaizen costing D]Backflush Costing

19. 19. The second stage of product life cycle is ____________

A] Introduction stage B]Growth stage C]Maturity Stage D]Decline stage

20. 20. The third stage of product life cycle is ____________

A] Introduction stage B]Growth stage C]Maturity Stage D]Decline stage

21.______________ is pattern of expenditure,sale level,revenue and profit over a period from new generation to the deletion of product from product range.

A] ABC costing B] Product Life cycle costing C]Kaizen costing D]Backflush Costing

22. _____________ aims to determine the lowest cost of ownership of fixed asset, maintenance, upgrading, disposal and other costs during the aseets’s economic life.

A]Fixed cost B]Committed cost C]Step cost D]Procurement cost

23. The ratio of promotion expenses to sales is the highest during __________

A] Introduction stage B]Growth stage C]Maturity Stage D]Decline stage

24. There is fierce competition at ____________ stage

A] Introduction stage B]Growth stage C]Maturity Stage D]Decline stage

25. While ana;yzing the long term performance of an investment , the _______________ is widely used.

A]Operating ratio B]cash on cash return ratio C]Sales ratio D] Gross profit ratio

26. Cost driver is relevant in order to calculate __________

A]selling price B]amount of gross profit C]return on investment ratio D]cost driver rate

27.___________ is that factor which influences the particular activity cost.

A]sales B]profit C]driver D]Cost pool

27. Depreciation of factory building is a ___________ level cost.

A]unit B]batch C]Customer D]Facility

28. For inspection cost the appropriate cost driver would be __________

A]Engineering hours B]Number of Inspections C]Machine hours D]Material movement

29. Full form of LCC is ___________

A]Life Control Costing B]Labour Control Costing C]Life Cycle Costing D]Life Cost Control

30. Balanced Score Card has ___________ perspectives.

A] two b] three C]four D]five

31. The balanced scorecard concept was originated by ____________

A]Dr.Abdul Kalam B]Dr.Robert Kaplan C]Mosaki Imai D]Warren Buffet

32.____________ is an inspection ,survey and analysis of energy flows,for energy conservation in a building , a process or a system to reduce the amount of energy input into a system without negatively affecting the output.

A]Value engineering B]Energy audit C]Efficiency audit D]Target costing

33.Michael Portor’s Model consists of ________ forces.

A]Four B]Five C]Three D]two

34. The concept of TQM was developed in __________

A]China B]Russia C]Korea D]Japan

35.____________ is known as the “Father of TQM”.

A]Ragnar Frisch B]Dr.Robert Kaplan C]Mosaki Imai D] Prof. W.Edwards Deming

36. The 4P’s of TQM does not include ___________

A]People B]Process C]Problem D]Place

37. ___________ is a system for assigning costs to products based on the activities they require.

A] ABC costing B] Product Life cycle costing C]Kaizen costing D]Backflush Costing

38. _______________ accumulates the cost for the entire activity.

A]Activity driver B] Cost driver C]Activity Cost Pool D] Product price

39.For factory works expenses the applicable cost driver would be ___________

A]Requisition raised B]Number of Inspections C]Machine hours D]Material movement

40.For store material receiving costs the applicable cost driver would be ___________

A]Requisition raised B]Number of Inspections C]Machine hours D]Material movement

41.Which of the following is a unit level cost?

A]Cost of special mould B]requisition raised C]Cost per unit D] Cost of meeting customers

42. Which of the following is a product level cost?

A]Cost of special mould B]requisition raised C]Cost per unit D] Cost of meeting customers

43. Which of the following is a batch level cost?

A]Cost of special mould B]material handling cost C]Cost per unit D] Cost of meeting customers

44. Which of the following is a customer level cost?

A]Cost of special mould B]material handling cost C]Cost per unit D] Cost of meeting customers

45.____________ is defined as anything that adds to the costs but not to the value of the product.

A] overheads B]variable costs C] waste D]direct costs

46.___________ is the search for industry’s best practices that lead to superior performance.

A] Value analysis B]value engineering C]TQM D]Benchmarking

47._____________ management tools is a key component of target costing.

A] Value analysis B]value engineering C]TQM D]Benchmarking

48.SQC stands for __________________

A] Statistical Quality Control B]Statistical Quantity Control C]Statistical Quality Cost

D]Statistical Quotation Control

49. In element wise classification of overheads, which of the following is not included

A]Fixed overheads B]Indirect labour C]Indirect materials D]Indirect expenses

50.Total sales of a product is Rs.10,000 and profit is 20% on sales. Profit = Rs._________

A]4000 B]3000 C]2500 D]2000

CLASS: S.Y. BMS IV SEM REGULAR

SUB : PRODUCTION AND TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT

1. ___ should be aimed at the needs of the customer, present and future.

a. Quality() b. Quantity() c. Productivity() d. environmental()

2. The ______ designing includes decisions regarding its shape, size, tolerance, colour and appearance of the product.

a. form() b. functional() c. environmental() d. Plant Management()

3. _____ pertains to planning of the space available for production activities.

a. Plant location () b. Plan Layout() c. Plant Management() d. environmental()

4. The ________ design phase provides a translation between the requirement analysis and the detail design.

a. form() b. functional() c. environmental() d. Quantity()

5._____ is the ratio between what is produced to what is required to produce it.

a. Quality() b. Quantity() c. Productivity()

6. ___________ manufacturing is a type of layout in which machines are grouped in what is referred to as a cell.

a. Hybrid() b. Cellular() c. Project() d. environmental()

7. __________ means determining the shape, standard and pattern of the product.

a. Product design() b. Product process () c. Product sale() d. Process()

8. A ______ layout is an arrangement based on the sequence of the operations that are performed during the manufacturing of a product or delivery service.

a. Group() b. Process() c. Product() d. Project()

9. _____ is the process of transforming raw material into finished goods for sale.

a. Marketing() b. Production() c. Packaging() d. Process()

10. ____ is a set of activities for ensuring quality in the process by which products are developed. It is a managerial tool.

a. Quality assurance() b. Quality control()

c. Quality Measuring() d. information system()

11. _____ layout is the physical arrangement of equipment and facilities within a plant.

a. Plant () b. Process() c. Product() d. mixed()

12. Batch production has ______ production runs.

a. shorter() b. medium() c. longer() d. mixed()

13. The flow of product in______ layout will be smooth and logical.

a. product() b. process() c. production() d. mixed()

14. The _____ function employs more people than any other functional area.

a. information system() b. operations() c. finance() d. marketing()

15. ______ layout is suitable when one or few pieces of an identical product are to be manufactured.

a. project() b. process() c. mixed() d. product()

16. _______ means dependability on a product.

a. reliability() b. aesthetics() c. maintainability() d. mixed()

17. _____ is an measure of success of an operation in producing outputs that satisfy customers.

a. efficiency() b. effectiveness() c. quality() d. profitability()

18. _____ layout can be used when the operation system must handle a wide variety of products in relatively small volumes and where flexibility is necessary.

a. Process() b. Plant() c. Production() d. mixed()

19. _______ refers to the quantity ordered to purchase at the lowest total cost.

a. EOQ() b. ABC () c. XYZ() d. EOQ

20. Forecasting is the responsibility of ______ Department in the material management.

a. product planning() b. sales planning() c. materials planning()

21. ______ is the art and science of moving, packing, and soring the materials in any form.

a. material management() b. material handling()

c. material procuring() d. product planning()

22. Value analysis is a ______ reduction technique.

a. cost() b. demand() c. supply() d. profit

23. The selective criteria used in HML Analysis for classifying the organizations on hand inventory is ______.

a. annual demand() b. unit price() c. annual consumption value() d. cost price

24. _____ is not an element of ordering cost.

a. storing cost() b. telephone cost to the supplier()

c. internet cost for sourcing() d. unit price

25. _______ is the extra units held in inventory to reduce stock outs.

a. safety stocks() b. buffer stocks() c. JIT() d. KIT

26. _____ is the systematic approach in planning procurement, storage and material handling so as to maximize company’s investment in materials.

a. financial control() b. integrated materials management()

c. management investment planning() d. unit price

27. _______ materials are delivered in bags for ease of handling and control use.

a. bagged() b. loose () c. packaged() d. demanded

28. ______ are two wheeled or four wheeled platforms truck which is made to run beneath stillage on which parts are loaded.

a. hand operated trucks() b. industrial trucks()

c. fork lift trucks() d. warehouse trucks

29. Materials management refers to the movement of production materials, from the edge of their acquisition to the stage of their _______.

a. consumption() b. controlling() c. organising() d. planning

30. _____ analysis is based on seasonality of items.

a. SOS() b. JIT() c. EOQ() d. PFM

31. _____ are the metal structures supported on three or four wheels which can be either open type or close type and are used to transport the material from one location to another.

a. hand trolley() b. hand barrow() c. wheel barrow() d. pulley

32. ______ level is a level of material at which the storekeeper should initiate the purchase requisition for fresh supplies.

a. RE-ORDER() b. JIT() c. EOQ() d. POQ

33. _________ are the heavy duty trucks adopted for running beneath the stillage on which parts are stacked.

a. lift trucks() b. stillage trucks() c. sliding wheel trucks() d. warehouse trucks

34. ______ analysis represent classification of items based on their criticality.

a. VED() b. ABC() c. GOLF() d. XYZ

35. _____ conveyors are flexible.

a. belt() b. screw() c. roller() d. crane

36. ______ are used for overhead transport of material over greater distances.

a. ropeways() b. jib cranes() c. overhead bridge cranes() d. belt

37. Purchasing is the ____ function of material management.

a. secondary() b. common () c. primary() d. final

38. _____ design is the developing and designing of steps.

a. layout() b. process() c. puchase () d. sale

39. Homogeneous products are similar in _____.

a. quantity() b. quality () c. size() d. shape

40. A ______ is an activity to meet the creation of a unique product or service

a. batch () b. product() c. project() d. meeting

41. Capacity decisions have a direct influence on performance of production system in respect of –––––––––

a. Delivery performance b. Quality control c. Plant size d. Manpower

42. Like roots of a tree, ––––––––– of organization is hidden from direct view.

a. goodwill b. core competence

c. Higher management d. Capital investment

43. ––––––––– should have the ability to develop a vision to see patterns into the future.

a. Leaders b. Workers c. Management d. Labours

44. Control should involve ––––––––– amount of information.

a. Minimum b. Sufficient c. Maximum d. No

45. The term ––––––––– implies the foregone profit due to inability of company to produce.

a. Opportunity cost b. Marginal cost c. Overhead cost d. Rational cost

46. Someone who is responsible for finding out what individual customers need, and explaining how the firm's products meet those needs, is a ______________.

a. Brand manager b. Salesperson

c. Sales manager d. Market research manager

47. Psychologists use the term_________________ to describe the way that individuals absorb information.

a. Cognitive style b. Intelligence Quotient

c. Human Computer Interaction d. Data Processing

48. Raw Materials and WIP can be classified under ________

a. Indirect Material b. Direct Material c. Finished Material d. Standard Parts

49. Buying according to the requirements is called ________

a. Seasonal Buying b. Hand to mouth buying

c. Scheduled Buying d. Tender Buying

50. Purchasing responsibilities can be divided into Buying, Clerical and ________ division.

a. Packing b. Traffic c. Record d. Follow up

CLASS: S.Y.BFM-VI SEM REGULAR

SUB : FOUNDATION COURSE

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1. ________ equity refers to the need for a just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations, and fair and impartial treatment of future generations.

a. INTRA-GENERATIONAL() b. ECO-GENERATIONAL() c.INTERGENERATIONAL() d. GENERATIONAL()

2. It is ________ that a person filing a case under PIL should have a direct interest in public interest litigation.

a. NECESSARY() b. NOT NECESSARY() c. iMPORTANT() d. VITAL()

3. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is preplaced by Consumer Protection Act, ________

a. 2019 () b. 2014() c. 2020 () d. 2015()

4. Under Consumer Protection Act 2019, the State Commission deals with consumer complaints, where the value of goods/services and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________ crore.

a. 20() b. 30() c. 10() d. 15()

5. The Consumer Protection Act 2019 came into force with effect from ________

a. 20^th JULY 2019() b. 21^st AUGUST 2019() c. 20^th JULY 2020() d. 1sr APRIL 2020()

4. The Consumer Protection Act 2019, the District Forum deals with consumer complaints, where the value of goods/services and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________ crore.

a. 1() b. 5() c. 10() d. 20()

5. Under the ‘Rights to ________’, a consumer has the right to be protected against certain goods which are dangerous to human life.

a. SAFETY() b. BE HEARD() c. CHOOSE() d. BE INFORMED()

6. Under the ‘Rights to ________’, a consumer has the right to register complaints and grievances relating to products which he/she uses.

a. CHOOSE() b. BE INFORMED() c. SAFETY() d. BE HEARD()

7. The Consumer Protection Act, the National Commission at the national level deals with complaints of amount that exceeds INR ___________ crore.

a. 20() b. 10() c. 15() d. 25()

8. The Essential Services Maintenances Act ensures the delivery of certain services, which if ________ would affect the normal life of the people.

a. PROVIDED() b. GUARDED() c. DELIVERED() d. OBSTRUCTED()

9.PIL means, litigation filed in a ________ for the protection of public interest that generally affects a group of persons or society at large.

a. STATE LITIGATION DEPARTMENT() b. CENTRAL GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENT()

c. COURT OF LAW() d. STATE SECRETARIATE()

10. The Right to Information Act, 2005 came into force with effects from _________ 2005.

a. 26^th AUGUST() b. 2^nd OCTOBER() c. 20^th JULY() d. 15^th JUNE()

11. The main objective of PIL is to protect __________

a. PUBLIC INFORMATION() b. GOVERNMENT INTEREST()

c. PRIVATE INTEREST() d. PUBLIC INTEREST()

12. The concept of Citizens’ Charter was first introduced and implemented in the ________ in 1991.

a. UNITED STATES OF AMERICA() b INDIA()

c. UNITED KINGDOM() d. PORTUGAL()

13. _________ is the first state in India to introduce the Right to Public Services Act in 2010.

a. UTTAR PRADESH() b. MADHYA PRADESH() c. MAHARASHTRA() d. GOA()

14. ____________ is the facility set up by the central government organisations to provide information to citizens about their programmes/ schemes, rules and procedures, etc.

a. INFORMATION CENTRE() b. INFORMATION AND FACILITATION COUNTER ()

c. INFORMATION WEBSITE() d. PROGRAMMES INFORMATION()

15. The Indian Contract Act was passed in the year ____________

a. 1872 () b. 1990 () c. 1986 () d. 2020()

16. In India, Citizens’ Charter was implanted in the year ___________

a. 2000 () b. 2005 () c. 1999 () d. 1997()

17. The Right to Information Act was first introduced in __________ state.

a. GUJARAT() b. TAMIL NADU () c. GOA() d. RAJASTHAN()

18. PIL refers to ___________

a. PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION() b. PUBLIC INFORMATION LITIGATION()

c. POLICE INFORMATION LITIGATION() d. PRIVATE INFORMATION LITIGATION()

19. In India, the Citizens’ Charter was first introduced in the _________ sector.

a. EDUCATION() b. AIRLINES() c. BANKING() d. INSURANCE()

20. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) as set up by Government of India as a ________ agency relating to Citizens’ Charters.

a. IMPLEMENTING() b. PROVIDING() c. COORDINATING() d. SERVING()

21. A citizens’ charter is a document setting out the rights of _________ which guarantees the right to redress on occasions where public services failed to meet certain standards.

a. CITIZENS() b. SENIOR CITIZENS() c. MALES() d. FEMALES()

22. Under the ‘Right to _______’, a consumer has the right to buy the products of his/her choice.

a. BE INFORMED() b. CHOOSE() c. BE HEARD() d. SAFETY()

23. The term ‘ecology’ was termed by German biologist ________

a. ERNST HACKLE() b. ANGELA MERKEL() c. ERNEST BORGES() d. BORIS MERKEL()

24. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was first adopted in_________. Well before environmental concerns were raised.

a. 1978() b. 1968 () c. 1958() d. 1948()

25. The ________ states “whoever is responsible for the damage to the environment should bear the costs associated with it.”

a. PPP() b. SDG() c. MDG() d. ECD()

26. _________ describes movements and philosophies that link feminism with ecology

a. FEMINISM() b. FEM-PHILOSOPHY() c. ECOFEMINISM() d. MOVEMENT PHILOSOPHY()

27. ___________ ecology is the study of the relationships between political, economic and social factors with environmental issues and changes.

a. ENVIRONMENTAL() b. SOCIAL() c. ECONOMIC() d. POLITICAL()

28. The concept of ‘Extended Producer Responsibility was first described by _________.’

a. THOMAS EDISON() b. ERNST HAVCKLE() c. THOMAS LINDQUIST() d. STAN ROWE()

29. __________ coined the term ‘Deep Ecology’.

a. PAUL TAYLOR () b. ARNE NAESS() c. STAN ROWE() d. JOHN PASSMORE()

30. Population ecology studies the dynamics of population of a ____________ species.

a. SINGLE() b. HUMAN() c. SEVERAL() d. ANIMAL()

31. ________ equity refers to the need for a just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations, and fair and impartial treatment of future generations.

a. INTRA-GENERATIONAL() b. ECO-GENERATIONAL()

c. INTERGENERATIONAL() d. GENERATIONAL()

32. _________ Principle is referred to the responsibility of polluter to bear costs associated with the damage to the environment.

a. POLLUTER COSTS() b. POLLUTER BANS()

c. POLLUTER GAINS() d. POLLUTER PAYS()

33. _________ focuses on the biotic community as a whole and strives to maintain ecosystem compositions and ecological processes.

a. ECOCENTRISM() b. ANTHROPOCENTRISM()

c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOFEMINISM()

34. ________ ecology studies the flows of energy and matter through the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystems.

a. SYSTEMS() b. POLITICAL() c. ECOSYSTEM() d. LANDSCAPE()

35. __________ seeks to shift the responsibility of costs dealing with waste from government to the manufacturers producing it.

a. POLLUTER PAYS PRINCIPLE() b. EXTENDED PRODUCER RESPONSIBILITY()

c. SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT PRINCIPLE() d. WASTE MANAGEMENT RESPONSIBILITY()

36. ________ argues that the natural world is a subtle balance of complex inter-relationships in which the existence of organisms is dependent on the existence of others within ecosystem.

a. DEEP ECOLOGY() b. ECOFEMINISM() c. ECOCENTRISM() d. BIOCENTRISM()

37. Community ecology focuses on the interactions between species with an _________ community.

a. SOCIAL() b. ECOLOGICAL() c. ECONOMIC() d. ENVIRONMENTAL()

38. __________ refers to comprehensive science of the relationship of the organism with the environment.

a. BOTANY() b. ECOLOGY()

c. ENVIRONMENTAL RELATIONSHIPS() d. ORGANIC SCIENCE()

39. ___________ equity is concerned with equity between people of the same generation.

a. INTRAGENERATIONAL() b. GENERATIONAL()

c. INTERGENERATIONAL() d. ECO-GENERATIONAL()

40. The sustainable development goals are for the period from 2015 to _________.

a. 2020() b. 2030() c. 2025() d. 2050()

41. __________ is a nature centered approach.

a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()

c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOCENTRISM()

42. ____________ refers to avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an ecological balance.

a. MORALITY() b. SUSTAINABILITY() c. ECOLOGY() d. ECO-DEPLETION()

43. __________ grant morals standing to all living beings.

a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()

c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOCENTRISM()

44. The sustainable development goals were developed to replace the __________ goals.

a. ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT() b. SUSTAINABILITY()

c. MILLENNIUM DEVELOPMENT () d. SOCIO-ECONOMIC()

45. WWF stands for World Wildlife _________.

a. FINANCE() b. FUND() c. FORMS() d. NATURE()

46. __________ ecology examines processes and relationship across multiple ecosystems or very large geographic areas.

a. GEOGRAPHIC () b. EVOLUTIONARY() c. LANDSCAPE() d. POPULATION()

47. ___________ refers to avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an ecological balance.

a. MORALITY() b. SUSTAINABILITY() c. ECOLOGY() d. ECO-DEPLETION()

48. The __________ declaration on environment and development was approved by the United Nations in 1992.

a. KYOTO() b. LONDON() c. DELHI() d. RIO()

49.____________ is a life centered approach views animals as important living beings.

a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()

c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOCENTRISM()

50. The ___________ is a strategy to cope with possible risks where scientific understanding is yet incomplete, such as the risk of nanotechnology, genetically modified organisms and systematic insecticides.

a. POLLUTER PAYS PRINCIPLE() b. PRECAUTIONARY PRINCIPLE()

c. EXTENDED PRODUCER RESPONSIBILITY() d. SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT PRINCIPLE()

Class SYBMS Semester ll Regular

Subject Economics

MCQ (50 Questions

1 which of following measurement indicator how National Income is distributed

(a)GDP (b)GNP (c) per capital income (d) NNP

2 which Branch of macroeconomics specifically focuses on the problem of developing economies

,(a) development economic speak now

(b) public finance

(d) Trade cycle theory

3. Keynesian theory is not based on Which of the following assumption

(a) supply creates it’s own demand (b) market can fail

4 .Which of the following school of thought in macroeconomics focouses on the role of money supply and central bank ?

(a) Development economics (b) classical school

(c) monetarism

(d) Keynesian school

5.one of the major assumption of the classical school is

(a)Lack of aggregate demand causes involuntary unemployment

(b) government's fiscal operations can reduce unemployment

(d)economy Will be in full employment equilibrium in the long run

6.the following is not a subject matter of macroeconomics

(a) national income accounting (b)law of demand and supply

7. Which of the following type of economy deals with the rest of the world?

(a) Closed. (b) open (c) only developed (d) only developing

8 which of the following economy is in equilibrium when investment is equal to saving?

(a) closed (b) open (c) developing (d) developed

9. In which of the economy the leakages in the form of savings and taxes arise in the circular flow of income?

(a) 2 sector (b) 3 sector (c) open (d) 1 sector

10. In a circular flow economy firms supply

(a) labour (b) goods and services (c) land (d) only goods

12. In a three sector economy we do not include income expenditure of

(a) government (b) external sector (c) household (d) two sectors

13. Which of the following is not a drawback of GGDP?

(a) provides an alternative to the the conventional measures of national income

(b) cannot measure economic sustainability

(d) not able to capture the economic welfare aspects of GDP

14. which of the following will not result in increased in economic welfare when the international income increases

(a)Increase in subsidy spending by the government

(b)Increased production in the defence sector at the cost of other sectors

(d) relational increase in taxes on the rich

15. Which of the following formulas is used to calculate GGDP

(a) GDP + net factor income from abroad

(b) GDP + C + I + G

(c)GDP – depreciation

(d) GDP - net natural capital consumption

16 GN in an open economy is equal to

(a) GDP +( X – M

(b) GDP + (X – M) + R – P

(d) GDP +(P – R)

17. What is the total money value of the goods and services produced by the the nationals during a given year?

(a) GNI (b) GDP(c) NNI (d)GNP

18. What is the total money value of final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of the country during a given year

(a)GDP (b) GNI (c) NNI (d) NRI

19. C a d stands for

(a) current account deduction

(b)Current account deficit

(d) current

20 …………. deals with the behaviour and changes in the macro fundamentals of an economy

(a) macroeconomics

(b) Business cycles

21. According to …………… economics is that part of economics which studies the overall average and aggregate of the economic system

(a) John Maganard (b)K.E.Boudling (c) J.S Mill (d)Dr. Smith

24. GNP stands for

(a)Gross net product

(b) Gross National product

(d) Gross National product

25 ………. Are the owners of factors of production- land , labour, capital and enterpreneur

(a) firm (b) Exchange (c) Households (d) Monetary Economics

26. A closed economic consists of …………sectors

(a) Two (b) Three (c)four (d) five

27. A model economy the………. … plays a major role in the functioning and the governing of the economic system of a country

(a)RBI (b) Government (c) Private sector (d)firm

28.Government receives income in the form of………..

(a)share (b)funds (c)Taxes (d)bills

29 goods and services as well as foreign investment and borrowing result in the ………………

(a) outflow of money

(b)inflow of money

(d)Exchange of money

30.The magnitude of circular flow will be more if…

(a)X>M (b)X<M (c) X=M (d) X+M

31 In economy with government sector and foreign sector the fundamental identity in an open economy will be

(a) Y=C+I+G+NX

(b)Y=C+I+G-NX

(c)Y=C+I+G+N

(d)Y=C+I+G+X

32 The help of circular flow we can study problems of of ……

(a) Disequilibrium

(b) (b) expenditure

(c) (c)income

(d) (d)goods and services

(e) Production takes place only in the………

(a) firms

(b) households

(c)financial market

(d) public sector

34. All the imports investment abroad and lending to other countries lead to……

(a) Inflow of money

(b)Out Flow of money

35 saving is a leakage in the circular flow and it gets injected back into the circular flow in the form of……..

. (a)Income (b) Investment

36 Macroeconomics also focuses on the study of ……………. that it exist like different form of of capitalism ,socialism.

(a)Economy system

(b) macroeconomics

(d) money and price

37. As …………. is a determinants of of national income macroeconomics studies the impact of trade on national income.

(a) Economy(b) foreign income

38. In a closed economy ………. is not included

(a) households(b) firm

39. In a three sector economy y =

(a) C + I(b) C + I + G (c) C + I +G = (X-M) (d) C-I

40.Keynesian economics came to be widely accepted because it finds solution to

(a) stagflation relation of 1970s

(b) recession in 2008

(d) great depression of 1930s

41.Microeconomics is a study of economics that deals with which 4 major factors

(a)Households firms government and demand supply

(b)households firms government and external sector

(d) household and internal factor

42. NNP stands for

(a)Net National product

(b)National net product

(d) national known product

43. Which of the following is the consumption sector

(a) Household (b) Firm

44. In which economy domestic income is equal to national income

(a) open economy

(b) closed economy

(d) national economy

45. GDP stands for

(a) Gross domestic product

(b)Gross daily price

(c)Goods daily price (d)Gross product domestic

46 Goods which are not used in the production of other goods are called

. (a)Capital goods

(b) consumption goods

(d) intermediate goods

47.calculation of national income at market prices is known as

(a) money income(b) real income

(d) current Income

48.Macroeconomics studies…

. (a) employment opportunities in the economy

(b) theory of supply of commodities (c) elasticity of demand in scooter (d) price of wheat in the market

49. Which one is included in inflow?

(a)Consumption (b) investment

50 which of the following is not flow

. (a) capital (b) income

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