FYBAF - SEM II - MCQ

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

SAMPLE MCQ       👇👇👇



 

AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI SYLLABUS  

 

 

Will be helpful to regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online examinations of SEM II, SEM  IV and SEM V class of students.

If it is helpful to you so also share it among your friends so that they will be also benefited from it.


MCQ – Multiple Choice Questions

 

SAMPLE MCQ

 

AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI SYLLABUS

 

 

Will be helpful to regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online examinations of SEM II, SEM  IV and SEM V class of students.

If it is helpful to you so also share it among your friends so that they will be also benefited from it.

ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED


CLASS: FY BAF

SUB : Innovative Financial services

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1.    The bill should have maximum of …….. days.

a.    90

b.    180

c.    30

d.    120

2.    Bill discounting is governed by the negotiable instrument act.

a.    Negotiable instrument act

b.    The contract act

c.    Sale of goods act

d.    Company act

3.    The …………… introduced a new bill market scheme in November 1970

a.    SEBI

b.    SBI

c.    RBI

d.    IRDI

4.    In the …………….. factoring, the factor does not make any advance payment to the client.

a.    Maturity

b.    Advance

c.    Loan

d.    Payment

5.    100% finance is provided in……………

a.    Factoring

b.    Forfaiting

c.    Goods

d.    Services

6.    ……………………. May be for financing a series of sales involving bulk trading.

a.    Factoring

b.    Forfaiting

c.    Goods

d.    Services

7.    A…………. define  as , “any person who is engaged in the business of issue management.”

a.    Factor

b.    Manager

c.    Merchant banker

d.    Insurer

8.    Financial Services are …………….

a.    Intangible

b.    Inseparable

c.    Variable

d.    Stable

9.    …………… Market facilitates the trading of foreign exchange.

a.    Capital Market

b.    Money market

c.    Commodity market

d.    Forex market

10. …………… refers to capital which is available for financing the new business venture.

a.    Venture capital

b.    Working capital

c.    Cash management

d.    Cash flow

11. …………… is an apex housing finance institution in the country.

a.    SBI

b.    RBI

c.    NHB

d.    ICICI

12. ………………  are in charge of the issue process.

a.    Merchant bankers

b.     RBI

c.    SBI

d.    ICICI

13. ………….. is only financing of foreign trade.

a.    Trading

b.    Billing

c.    Forfaiting

d.    Factoring

14. The Securities and exchange Board of India was constitute in ……………….

a.    1988

b.    1990

c.    1992

d.    1987

15. The issuing company is expected to pay brokerage with in ………………… months from the date allotment.

a.    Four

b.    Three

c.    Two

d.    One

16. The …………. Also offer certain other specialized services such as advisory services on matters suc as mergers and amalgamation.

a.    Underwriters

b.    Merchant banker

c.    Broker

d.    Bankars

17. A banker to an issue is required to maintain books of accounts for a minimum period of ………….. years.

a.    Two

b.    Four

c.    One

d.    Three

18. Where in an order, the client places a limit on the price of the security, it is a case of …………

a.    Limit order

b.    Best rate order

c.    Immediate or cancel order

d.    Stop loss order

19. A banker to an issue is required to maintain books of accounts for a minimum period of ……….. Year.

a.    Two

b.    Four

c.    Three

d.    Five

20. Securitisation is the process of pooling and repackaging of homogeneous …………. Financial assets into marketable securities.

a.    Liquid

b.    Illiquid

c.    Fixed

d.    Current

21. NEFT stands for

a.    Non electric fund transfer

b.    Net electric fund transfer

c.    National electric fund transfer

d.    National Electronic fund transfer

22. Factoring Regulation act….

a.    2010

b.    2011

c.    2012

d.    2013

23. Bills and invoices are technically know as …………..

a.    Bill of discounting

b.    Bill

c.    Invoices

d.    Papers

24. KYC stands for

a.    Knowledge your customer

b.    Knowing you costume

c.    Key your customer

d.    Know your customer

25. Stock broker means a …………….. of a Stock exchange.

a.    Person

b.    Member

c.    Men

d.    People

26. The availability of cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as………….

a.    Cash crunch

b.    Liquidity

c.    Credit

d.    Marketability

27. Banking sector comes under which of the following sector

a.    Marketing sector

b.    Manufacturing sector

c.    Services sector

d.    Industrial sector

28. A set of complex and closely connected instruction, agents parties , market transaction etc. aspect of an economy is referred   as

a.    Financial system

b.    Financial market

c.    Financial institution

d.    Financial management

29. ………………. Is a market for financial assets which have a long or indefinite maturity.

a.    Financial system

b.    Financial market

c.    Capital market

d.    Money market

30. …………………….. was constitute to protect the the interest of investors in securities and to promote the development of and to regulate the securities market through appropriate measures.

a.    RBI

b.    SEBI

c.    NSE

d.    BSE

31. What does SEBI aim to provide?

a.     Investor protection

b.    Legal information

c.    Large volumes on the stock market

d.    Market securities

32. The maximum load that a fund can exchange is determine by…………….

a.    SEBI

b.    RBI

c.    AMFI

d.    Distributing agent

33. NBFC performs a great role for finance in …………..

a.    Wholesale sector

b.    Big scale industry

c.    Small scale and retail sector

d.    Heave machinery industry

34. NBFC is company registered under

a.    The Indian contract act

b.    The Companies act , 1956

c.    The RBI act

d.    The factory act

35. Finance is not available for the following factoring services……..

a.    Without resource factoring

b.    With resource factoring

c.    Maturity factoring

d.    Invoice discounting

36. Credit protection is available in

a.    Without resource factoring

b.    With resource factoring

c.    Maturity factoring

d.    invoice factoring

37. Under forfaiting the client is able to get credit facility to the extent of ……….

a.    100% of the value of the export bill

b.    80% of the value of export bill

c.    75% of the value of the export bill

d.    90% of the value of the export bill

38. Full service factoring is often ………….

a.    Resource factoring

b.    Non resource factoring

c.    Agency factoring

d.    Local factoring

39. The process of selling trade debts of a client to a financial intermediaries is called…..

a.    Bill discounting

b.    Factoring

c.    Securitisation

d.    Materialisation

40. ……………………  are mainly provided to foreign investors.

a.    Custodian services

b.    Financial services

c.    Factoring

d.    Banking

41. The idea of providing factoring services was first throught of in India by ………………

a.    Tandem committee

b.    Malhotra committee

c.    Vaghul committee

d.    Sen committee

42. The central theme  of  forfaiting is the purchasing of ……………… by a financial service company .

a.    Trade bills

b.    Export bills

c.    Import bills

d.    Local bills

43. Refactoring charges have to be paid in the cash of ………………..

a.    Maturity factoring

b.    With resource factoring

c.    Invoice factoring

d.    Full bill factoring

44. Buying a company’s accounts receivable on a non resource basis is known as …………..

a.    Trading

b.    Billing

c.    Factoring

d.    Funding

45. Which of the following is not necessarily a  party to a forfaiting transaction?

a.    Exporter

b.    Importer

c.    Broker

d.    Bank

46. The greatest security for a banker is that a ………

a.    B/E

b.    Mutual fund

c.    Commercial paper

d.    Bonds

47. The buyer accepts the invoice and acknowledges ……………….. on the due date.

a.    Seller

b.    Paying

c.    Receiving

d.    Buyer

48. ……………. Has constantly endeavoured to develop the commercial bills market.

a.    Commercial bank

b.    Scheduled bank

c.    RBI

d.    SBI

49. The ………… bill is properly stamped.

a.    Demand

b.    Usance

c.    Expired

d.    Local

50. The practice of discounting accommodation bills is known as …………….

a.    Night bill

b.    Kite flying

c.    Knight bill

d.    Usance bill





Class- F.Y.B.A.F 

Subject- Buisness Law 

MCQ (50 questions)


1.      An Indemnity Can?

[a] Expressed

[b] Implied

[c] can be expressed or implied

[d] invalid

 

2.     In Contract of Indemnity there are ________parties.

[a] two

[b] Three

[c] Four

[d] Five

3 . Which of the following is the right of indemnity holder.

[a] All Sums

[b] All Costs

[c] All Damages

[d] No costs

 

4.The Person to Whom Guarantee given is Called as __________ 

[a] Surety

[b] Principal debtor

[c] Creditor 

[d] Co-surety

5. A Contract of gurantee,which contemplates Three contracts at the time is called as ?

[a] Valid Agreement

[b] Tripartite Agreement

[c] Void Agreement

[d] In-valid agreement

6. A Contract of gurantee discharge liability of whom in case of his default ?

[a] First Person

[b] Third Person

[c] Fourth Person

[d] No any such person

7. Operation of law is one of essential of contract of Indemnity?

[a] Yes

[b] No

[c] Neither of above

8. The person who promises to more good the loss is called as?

[a] Indemnity holder

[b] Bailor

[c] Indemnifier

[d] bailee

9. A Contact by which one party promises to Save other from loss caused to him by conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person name as ?

[a] Contract of Bailment

[b] Contract of gurantee

[c] Contract of Indemnity

[d] Contract of surety

10. In Specific gurantee mode of transaction is used ? 

[a] Series of Transaction

[b] Single Transaction

[c] Double transaction

[d] No such mode exist

11. The Contract Where takes place of deliver of goods .Such contracts is called?

[a] Contract of gurantee

[b] Contract of indemnity

[c] Contract of Bailment

[d] Contract of agency

12. If goods are given by mistake there is no contract of Bailment.

[a] Yes

[b] No

[c]  Partly true

[d] Partly false

13. Contract of Bailment , spears about which goods.

[a] Moveable

[b] Immoveable

[c] perishable

[d] Non-perishable

14. Contract of bailment involves temporary change with regard to?

[a] Possession

[b] Ownership

[c] service

[d] contract itself  

15. Whose duty is it not to mix goods ?

[a] Bailor

[b] Bailee

[c] surety

[d] Bailor and bailee both

16. Bailment of goods for security of payment is called as

[a] pledge

[b] guarantee

[c] Mortgage

[d] Lease

17. To return the increase in goods

[a] duty of bailor

[b] Duty of bailee

[c] Duty of third party

[d] Duty of both bailor and bailee

18. Whose duty is it to disclose the faults in the good bailed ?

[a] bailee

[b] Promiser

[c] Bailor

[d] third party

19. If the bailee with the consent of bailor mixes the goods with that of bailor has right to claim ?

[a] un-equal share in goods mixed

[b] Proportionate share in goods mixed

[c] No share

[d] Maximum share

20. Types of bailment under the Indian contract act 

[a] three

[b] Four

[c] Two

[d] One 

21. Which one of the following is correct ?

[a] Indian contract act 1882

[b] Indian contract act 1972

[c] Indian contract act 1872

[d] Indian contract act 1888

22. The law of contract is nothing but

[a] A child of commercial dealing

[b] A child of religion

[c] A child of day day politics

[d] A child of economics

23. The term contract is define under which section in Indian contract act ?

[a] section 2 (b)

[b] Section 2 (p)

[c] Section 2 (e)

[d] Section 2 (h)

24. The Indian contract act is divided into how many parts ?

[a] Four parts

[b]  Seven parts

[c] Two parts

[d] Ten parts

25. The Indian Contract Act ,1872 extends to

[a] Whole of India

[b] North India only

[c] South India only

[d]  Whole of India including jammu and kashmir

26. To form a valid contract , there should be atleast ?

[a] Two parties

[b] Three parties

[c] Four parties

[d] Five parties

27. Section one to section 75 are applicable to

[a] Special contract

[b]  Transfer of property

[c] Partnership Act

[d] General principal of contract

28. Law of contract lays down the rules relating to formation of ?

[a] Sales

[b] Contract

[c] Partnership Act

[d] Information Technology act

29. For a contract consent is

[a] Not essential

[b] Very essential

[c] May or may not be essential

[d] Essential

30. Contractual rights and duties are created by ?

[a] state

[b] Parties

[c] Statute

[d] Custom or usage

31. Every contract is an agreement ,but every agreement is not a contract . This statement is

[a] Wrong

[b] Correct

[c] Correct ,subject to certain exceptions

[d] Partially correct

32. As per sec 2 (e) of Indian contract Act ,

Every promise and every set of promise forming consideration for each other is a/an

[a] Contract

[b] Agreement

[c] Offer

[d] Acceptance

33. In consideration the act must be done at the desire of

[a] Bailee

[b] Third party

[c] Neither of them

[d]  Promisor

34. The promise to be performed on a future date is called as ?

[a] Past consideration

[b] Illusory consideration

[c] Future consideration 

[d] Present consideration

35. Consideration not permitted by law is called as ?

[a] social consideration

[b] Third party consideration

[c] Lawful consideration

[d] Unlawful consideration

36. Over a cup of coffee in a restaurant x invites y to dinner at his house on Sunday y hires a taxi and reaches x house at appointed time but x fails to perform his promise can y recover any damages from x ?

[a] Yes,as y has suffered

[b] No, as the intention was not to create legal relation

[c] Because y is minor

[d] Any promise does not exist

37. Which of following is a contract ?

[a] A engages B for a certain work any promises to pay such remuneration as shall be fixed . B does the work

[b] A promise to marry B

[c] A takes a seat in public vehicle

[d] A invites B to card party B accepts the invitation

38. Which one of the following will constitute a valid acceptance?

[a] as enquiry as to the fitness of the subject matter of contract

[b] A provisional acceptance

[c] Acceptance of offer

[d] A conditional acceptance

39. Goods displayed in a shop window with a price label will amount to

[a] offer

[b] Acceptance of offer

[c] Invitation of offer

[d] Counter offer

40. Misstatement of facts made by one party to other party with intention to deceive the other party to the contract

[a] This is called coercion

[b]  This is called mistake

[c]  This is called undue influence

[d]  This is called fraud

41. Mistakes of law and mistake of fact are as

[a] Advantages of mistake

[b] Disadvantages of mistakes

[c] Features of mistake

[d] Classification of mistake

42. An agreement is

[a] Offer

[b] Offer acceptance

[c] Offer +Acceptance +Consideration

[d] Contract

43. A minor is a person below

[a] 14 years

[b] 16 years

[c] 18 years

[d] 22 years

44. The person who makes offer is known                        as

[a] Offeror

[b] Bailor

[c]  Offeree

[d] Bailee

45. The offer made to specific person as

[a] Counter offer

[b] Specific offer

[c] Standing offer

[d] General offer

46. Communication in the offer has to be communicated to

[a] Third party

[b] Offeree

[c] Bailor

[d] Bailee

47. Rejecting an offer brings offer

[a]        To start offer

[b] To communicate offer

[c] To end offer

[d] To re-accept offer

48. A offering to pay rs.2,00,000 to anyone who gives information about his missing daughter

[a] This is specific offer

[b] Counter offer

[c] General offer

[d] Standing offer

49. “A” offers to sell “B” his acer laptop at Rs.20,000 . “B” immediately hands out a cheque for amount . here “B” has accepted it impliedely without speaking

[a] This is called as contract

[b] This is called as offer

[c] This is called as agreement

[d] This is called  as acceptance

50. Consideration must have some value

[a] True

[b] False

[c] Not very correct

[d] Not essential



CLASS: FYBAF – II SEM REGULAR

SUB: INTRODUCTION & PLANNING OF AUDITING

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1.    The term ‘Audit’ has been derived from latin word ‘’Audire” which means to ……… .

a)    Say                       b) hear          c) management        d) supervise

 

2.    Auditor should have ………&…….. to do the work of audit.

a)    Skill & Competence                             c) inefficiency & Dishonesty          

b)    c) irregularity & Indiscipline                  d) Name & Fame

 

3.    ………. means the auditor should keep the information of client with himself & should not disclose this information anywhere outside.

a)    Planning              b) management skill            c) confidentiality    d) reporting

 

4.    When books of account are made in such a way to show much better condition than the actual condition is called as ……… .

a)    Materiality                        b) secret reserve      c) consistency                     d) window dressing

 

5.    ………. Is against the provision of schedule VI of companies act, 1956.

a)    Auditing               b) accounting                        c) secret reserve    d) verification

 

6.    ……….. should verify whether the income has been properly recorded the books and reported in the final accounts.

a)    Curator                 b) Supervisor            c) Auditor                 d)   manager

 

7.    A company  audit should be a …………. In practise.

a)    B.com                   b) CA                         c) ICWA                                 d) CS

 

8.    Auditor should protect the interest of the client like a ……….. .

a)    Employee            b)  Investor                c) debtor                    d) watchdog

 

9.    When a transaction is omitted from the books it is called as ……..

a)    Error of omission         b) error of commission        c) fraud                      d) overvaluation

 

10. When books of accounts are made in such a way to show much worst condition than the actual condition it is called ………

a)    window dressing            b) secret reserve    c) fraud                      d) error

11. when the same transaction is recorded twice in the books it is called as ……… .

a)    error of application         b) error of commission        c) error of duplication       d) error of posting

 

12. When the transaction has been entered in the books but wrongly it is called …….. .

a)    Mistake                b) error of commission                c) error of duplication          d) error

 

13. Primary objective of audit is to determine whether the books of accounts are ………

a)    full of errors & frauds     b) very fair                 c) true & fair             d) wrongly entered

 

14. ……… is not compulsory as per the law for all types of business organizations.

a)    Audit                    b) registration of company  c) partnership deed d) recruitment

 

15. ‘’Where the auditor, or his staff, is constantly engaged in checking the accounts during the whole period’’

-          Definition given by ………. .

a)    W.C. Williams     b) R.C. Williams                  c) A.B. Williams                    d) D.C. Williams

 

16. Audit conducted after the end of the accounting year is called as ……… .

a)    Continuous audit            b) interim audit                     c) final audit             d) primary audit

 

17. Audit conducted between two annual audits is called as ………. Audit.

a)    Continuous audit            b) interim audit                   c) final audit              d) primary audit

 

18. Which of the following is very expensive audit to be conducted by the firm?

a)    Continuous audit         b) interim audit                     c) final audit              d) primary audit

 

19. Companies registered under & governed by companies act, ………. .

a)    1954                     b) 1955                                  c) 1956                                  d) 1957         

 

20. ………….  Means determining the existence and confirmation of assets & liabilities on date of balance sheet.

a)    Verification                     b) transaction                       c) vedas                     d) management

 

21. Who is the real owners of companies ?

a)    Promoters                        b) auditor                   c) employee              d) shareholder

 

22. Dividend is received by the …………… of the companies .

a)    Debenture holders         b) share holder                   c) depositors             d) employees

 

23. Examination of financial records is done with the object of giving the report, which is called ……… .

a)    Audit report       b) interim report        c) quarter report        d) final report

24. …………. Means part of the profits kept aside for future use.

a)    Capital                 b) gold                                    c) reserves               d) report

 

25. It becomes easy for the company to obtain loans from the bank on the basis of audited ………. .

a)    Financial statements b) quarter statement             c) monthly report      d) fake report

 

26. As per the requirement of ……… , to have the shares listed on the stock exchange, the books of accounts have to be audited.

a)    Companies                     b) ICAI                                    c) shareholders                    d) SEBI

 

27. ……… is an unintentional mistake in financial statements. It is an inadvertent or innocent mistake in the books and records.

a)    Error                    b) fraud                      c) honesty                 d) indicators

 

28. Banking companies governed by banking regulation act, ……… .

a)    1950                     b) 1951                                  c) 1953                                   d) 1949

 

29. Co-operative societies registered under the cooperative societies act, ……… .

a)    1912                     b) 1913                                  c) 1914                                   d) 1915

 

30. As transaction are checked at the earliest date after the occurrence, there can be quick detection & correction of errors & frauds. Such audit is known as ………

a)    Continuous audit         b) interim audit                     c) final audit              d) primary audit

 

31. It becomes very easy to keep accounts ready on monthly or quarterly basis because of ……….. .

a)    6 months audit    b) periodic audit       c) continuous audit           d) annual audit

 

32. Conducting continuous audit is costly affair which only ……. Organization can afford.

a)    Small                    b) large                                  c) MSE                                   d) cottage firm

 

33. After interim audit ………… dividend is declared .

a)    Interim dividend           b) annual dividend   c) regular dividend   d) 5 years dividend

 

34. Publication of quarterly results is a statutory requirement for ……….. on stock exchange.

a)    Pvt. Ltd.                b) public ltd. co.                 c) small companies d) large pvt ltd.

 

35. ………. Is a system of accounting , which indicates how & in what way business organization has discharged its social responsibilities towards the society.

a)    Accounting                      b) basic accounting             c) social accounting         d) firm accounting

 

36. ……….. is assessment of social performance of an organisation.

a)    Continuous audit            b) social audit                                 c) final audit              d) dividend

 

37. ………….. is mainly concerned with appraising & evaluating the management for.

a)    Internal control   b) management audit                    c) interim audit                      d) annual audit

 

38. In order to understand the need of social audit, we need to understand the concept of social responsibilities and concept of ……….. accounting.

a)    Financial accounting b) management accounting   c) social accounting         d) final accounting

 

39. ……….. can identify and highlight those areas where there are deficiencies and can also suggest certain corrective action.

a)    Poor management         b) management accounting        c) top management d) accounting

 

40. ……… has to maintain documents or working papers of important matters of the work done by him.

a)    Auditor                b) manager                           c) employee              d) SEBI

 

41. The government made some legal provisions whereby accounts required to be checked and reported upon by an independent person other than the person involved in the management. These person came to be known as ……….. .

a)    HR manager       b) CEO                                               c) vice president       d) Auditor

 

42. Financial statement of a bank should be prepared as per the format given in ……….regulation act.

a)    Partnership         b) banking                            c) companies            d) co-operative

 

43. ………… in ordinary terms means the skill of arranging the goods attractively in the shop window.

a)    Secret reserve    b) window dressing                       c) attractive goods   d) free sample

 

     44. __________ is a systematic examination of the books and records or a business

            a) Auditing   b) Vouching  c) Verification   d) Checking

       45. This kind of audit is conducted generally between two annual audit ______.

                a) internal audit. b) interim audit.      c)  final audit.      d) continuous audit.

        46. Internal auditor is appointed by ________.

a) the management.           b)  the shareholders c) the government.    d) he statutory body.

47. Auditing begins where ______ ends.

a) Selling       b) inventory valuation         c) Accounting                     d) Purchases

48. For which of the following, Audit is optional?

a)  Trusts       b) Joint stock companies.   c) Proprietorship concern.  d) Public ltd co.

       49. The audit that is made compulsory under statute is called _________.

a) Statutory audit.  b) Partial audit   c) Complete audit.   d) Continuous audit

 

50. Who among the following can be appointed as auditor of a company?

      a) A partner or a director of the company.

b) A person of unsound mind

c) Mr. Y who owes Rs. 500 to the company.

d) Mr. Z the holder of C.A certificate.



CLASS-    FYBAF SEMESTER ll       REGULAR

SUBJECT: BUSINESS MATHEMATICS

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1. Divide the number 1000 into two parts such that the ratio is 2:3

(a)250,750  (b) 200,800 (c) 500,500

 2. a^2:b^2 is ……… ratio.

  (a) Triplicate ratio (b) Duplicate ratio (c)single ratio

3.The ratio 40 cm to 1 m is

(a)2:5 (b) 3:5 (c) 4:5 (d) 5:2

4.There are 30 boys and 20 girls in a class .The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys.

(a) 2:3 (b) 3:2 (c) 2:5 (d) 3:5

5.The height of Apala is 150 cm. The height of paro is 120 cm .The ratio of the height of Apala to the height of pari is

(a) 4:5 (b) 5:4 (c) 5:2 (d) 4:1

6 .The Monthly  salary of Hari kishan is RS  80000 The monthly salary of Manish is RS 40000 .How many times of the salary of Manish is the Hari kishan.

(a)  2 Times (b) 3 times (c) 4 times (d) 8times

7 .A ratio equivalent to 3:7 is  (a)  3:9 (b) 6:10 (c) 9:21 (d) 18:49

8.The ratio 35:84 in Simplest form is

(a) 5:7        (b) 7:1(c) 5:12 (d) 8:7

9. Two numbers are in the ratio 7:9 .If the sum of the numbers is 112 ,then the largest number is

(a) 49 (b) 72 (c) 63 (d) 42

10  The ratio of 1 hour to 300 seconds is

(a)  1:12 (b) 12:1 (c) 1:5 (d) 5:1

11. In 4:7:: 16:28 ,7 and 16 are called

(a) extreme terms (b) middle terms (c) single  term  (d) Double term

12. If 12,21,72,126 are in proportion ,then

(a) 12×21= 72×126 (b)12×72=21×126(c) 12×126= 21×72 (d)12×12=12×126

13. If x,y and z are in proportion ,then

(a) x:y::z:x, (b) x:y::y:z (c) x:y::z:y  (d) x:z::y:z

14. 7:12 is equivalent to

(a) 28:40 (b) 42:71 (c) 72:42(d) 42:72

15 The value of m, if 3,18,m,42 are in proportion is: 

(a)  6 (b) 54 (c) 7 (d) 8

16 The length and  the width of a field are in the ratio 5:3 .if the width of the field is 42 m then length is:

(a)  100m (b) 80 m (c) 50m (d) 70 m

17 The first, second and fourth terms of a proportion are 16,24 and 54 respectively .Then the third term is

(a)  36 (b) 28 (c) 48 (d) 32

18.If a:b = 2:3 and b:c = 4:3 then find a:b:c

(a) 8:12:9 (b) 2:3:8 (c) 2:3:9 ( d) 2:3 12

19. Find the fourth proportion to 2,3,6

(a) 18 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 4

20. If 2:9::x:18 ,then find the value of x

(a) 2  (b) 3  (c) 4 (d) 6

21.  The salary of A,Band C are in ratio 2:3:5 .If the increment of 15%,10% and 20% are done to their respective salaries then find the new ratio of their salaries .

(a)  20:33:60 (b) 21:33:60  (c) 22:33:60 (d) 23:33:60

22. If two quantities are related in such a way that increase in 1 quantity causes increase in other quantity ,then this variation is said to be

(a) joint variation

 (b) extreme variation

 (c) Direct variation

 (d) Inverse variation

23.If two quantities are related in such a way that when 1 quantity increases the other quantity decrease,ateden this variation is said to be

(a)Extreme variation

(b)Joint Variation

(c) Direct variation

(d) Inverse variation

24. The ratio of the present age of father to that son is 7: 2 after 10 years their age will be in the ratio of 9:4 the present ages of the father is

(a) 35 years (b) 40 years (c) 30 years (d) 25 years

25. If a:b= 7:5,b:c =9 :11 ,find a:b:c ?

(a) 63:14:55  (b) 63:45:55 (c) 14:14:15 (d) 7:14:15

26. The price it which a commodity is actually sold in the market is known as

(a) list prize (b) cost a prize(c)net selling price (d) BEP

27.If the net selling price exceeds the cost price then there is

(a)profit     (b) loss

(c) no profit no loss

(d)  break even point

28.If the cost price exceeds the need selling price then there is

(a) Profit    (b) loss (c) no profit no loss(d) break even point

29. The final price after deducting all the discounts which is consider for the transaction is called

(a)Discounted list price (b) Net selling price (c)List price (d) Selling price

30.The brokerage from buyer and  seller are……. while calculating total brokerage in a deal of the broker

 (a) Added (b) subtracted

(c) multiplied (d) divided

31. The cash discount is calculated on

(a)net selling price (b) cost price (c) discounted list price (d) none of these

32.The difference between the market value and the net worth all the business is

(a) Profit (b )loss

 (c) Goodwill

(d) no profit no loss

33.The market price is also known as

(a) List price(b) catalogue price (c) both a and B (d) none of these

34. A trade discount is given on

(a) List price

(b)  reduce the list price

(c) cash price     (d) selling price

35. If CP= 2000 profit = 10% find selling price

(a)3000 (b) 3200(c) 2200(d)200

36. A del credere  agent does the following

(a) Sales goods(b) guarantees  collection of dues(d)  both A&B (d) none of these

37. Agent who guarantees the collection of dues from the customer is called

(a) factor (b)  Del credere (c)  Guarantor (d) none of these

38 . A trader sold an article at rupees 14,000 with 40% profit its cost price is                         

(a)   rupees 12,000

 (b)  rupees 10,000

(c)  rupees 10,400

(d)  rupees 3000

39. By selling bags at  rupees 120 per  piece a shopkeeper made 50% profit the percentage profit he will earn if he sells them at  rupees 110 per piece is

(a) 37.5% ( b)36% (c) 38% (d)  40%

40. By selling mobiles rupees 5000 each a trade made 20% profit if he wants 50% profit then the mobiles should be sold at

(a) Rupees 5500 (b) rupees 7000

 (c) rupees 6000 (d)  rupees 9000

41. The net percentage profit is calculated on….

(a) selling price  (b) cost price. (c) invoice price (d) market price

42. The list price of a book is rupees 500 and it’s net selling price after allowing a trade discount of 10% and a further cash discount of 2% is

(a) Rupees 450 (b)Rupeess 441

(c) rupees 430 (d) rupees 900

43. The net percentage profit often article mark do 50% ever the cost price after giving 20% trade discount and 2% cash discount is

(a) 17.6% (b)16%(c)  16.6% (d) none of these

44. Nitin sold a LCD TV  24,000 and got 5% Commission on it if his salary was rupees 15000 per  month thus total payment he received in the month is

(a)Rupees 16,000

 (b) rupees 17,400

 (c) rupees 16,200

(d)  rupees 9000

45 An agent got 2% Commission from seller and 1% Commission from the buyer when a flat was sold for rupees 30 lakhs  the total Commission he received was

(a)  Rupees 1 lakh

(b)  rupees 1,20,000

(c) rupees   1,50,000  

(d) rupees 90000

 

(a)  46. Find Cost price if Selling price = 3000 loss= 20%

(a) 3750 (b)2750(c) 2000 (d)500

47.Milind received 3% Commission on sales of a scooter 8 rupees 40,000 and 2% on sales of a car at rupees 3 lakhs. the total Commission he earned was

(a) Rupees 7200  (b)Rupees 7000 (c) rupees 8000 (d) none of these

48. If x : Y =   2: 3 and y:z= 4:3 ,then x:y:z is

7:11:10   (b) 8:11:9 (c) 10:12:11 (d) 8:12:9

49. If 12 ,16,k and 20 are in the proportion, the value of k is

(a) 14 (b) 15(c)  16 (d) 20

 50. The triplicate ratio of 1:3 is

(a) 1:27    (b)  1:9 (c) 1 :26 (d) 3:5


CLASS:F.Y.B.A.F

SUB:FIANACIAL ACCOUNTING-II

MCQ(50 Questions)

 

1.Under Stock and Debtors method, Branch stock Account helps to

a)Ascertain net profit/Loss of branch()

b)Ascertain gross profit/Loss pf Branch()

c)Ascertain closing stock at the branch()

d)Ascertain cost of goods sent to the branch()

2.Branch Account under debtors system is a

a)Real account ()              b)nominal account()

c)Personal account ()      d)Representative Personal account()

3.When goods are sent to branch by H.O. which account is debited____

a.Branch account()             b.H.O()

c.Cash/Bank a/c()               d.Debtors()

4.when cash is remitted by Branch to H.O.which Account_____is credited.

a)Branch Account()                b)Cash a/c()

c)Real account()                     d)Expenses a/c()

5.opening stock Rs5000(IP) find the load if cost if 25%

a)1000 ()            b)2000()

c)3000 ()            d)4000()

6.Goods sent to BranchRs.340000 (cost)If Goods are invoiced to branch at cost plus 50%.find the invoice price.

a)510000()                b)440000 ()               c)560000()            d)240000()

7.If the credit total of the Branch stock a/c is more than its debit total, the difference is taken as normal _________

a)Stock gain()             b)Stock Loss()   c)Deficit()             d)Surplus()

8.The H.O. send its goods to its branch at a loading of 20% on cost.

a.The loading is 25% of sales()  b.The loading is 1/6th of sales()

c.The loading is 1/3rd of cost()  d.The loading is 1/7th of sales()

9.The H.O. send it goods to its branch at a loading of 25% on sales.

a.The loading is 50% of cost ()        b.The loading is 1/4th of cost()

c.The loading is 1/3rd of cost()  d.The loading is 20% of cost()

10.Stock reserve in relation to closing stock appears

a.on the debit side of branch account()

b.on the credit side of branch account()

c.on the debit side of profit and loss account()

d.on the credit side of the profit and loss account()

11.Under stock and Debtors method,___A/c is opened in order to ascertain gross profit/loss of branch.

a.Branch stock()                           b.Branch Debtors()

  c.Branch cash()                          d.Branch Profit and Loss()

12.Under Debtors method, Goods received from another branch at a cost are debited to________a/c

a.Branch()                            b. Branch stock()

 c.Branch Debtors()            d.Branch Cash()

13.Under Debtors method,Good sent to branch a/c  is closed by transfer to_______a/c

a.Purchase()                        b.Sales()

  c.debtors ()                           d.Creditors()

14.Under Debtors method, branch account is closed by transfer to__a/c

a.Profit and Loss a/()                      b.Gross profit()

  c.Balance sheet ()                          d.Net profit()

15.Payment to branch creditors are not recorded in the Branch account kept under the _______method.

a.Debtor()   b.Branch stock()     c.Stock()     d.Stock and Debtors()

16.Under Debtors method,Goods returned to HO are debited to__a/c

a.Goods sent to HO()                            b.Branch stock()

 c.Branch Debtors ()                              d.Branch cash()

17.Under Debtors method, when goods are sent at invoice price,load on opening stock brought down from last year is adjusted by debit to_____a/c

a.Branch a/c()  b.Stock reserve()   c.Branch cash()  d.Branch Debtors()

18.Under stock and Debtors method expenses of branch met by HO are debited to_________a/c

a.Branch cash()                            b.Branch expenses ()

c.Branch profit and Loss()           d.Br.debtors()

19.If total stock is Rs.50000 the value of policy is Rs.70000 and the entire stock is lost, the claim will be for

a.Rs.75000()     b.Rs.35714()   c.Rs.50000()    d.Rs.60000()

20.The balancing figure in Memorandum Trading account prepared by a trader who has lost goods in the fire accidents.

a.Gross profit on stock lost()  b.estimated closing stock on date of fire()

c.value of fire insurance policy()  d.amount of claim to be made from insurance company()

21.If there are any damaged or obsolete items in stock lost by fire, the amount of loss will be

a.equal to the cost of normal items()

b.equal to the cost of abnormal items()

c.equal to cost of Normal items+Cost of abnormal items()

d.equal to cost of Normal items-Cost of abnormal items()

22.Average clause in an insurance policy applies only in case of_

a.Lifeinsurance()                 b.over-insurance()

c.under insurance()           d.fire insurance()

23.Salvage is_____

a.added to stock on the date of fire ()   b.Deducted from stock on date of fire()             c.Ignored for deciding claim()     d.Added to loss()

24.Abnormal items included in closing stock should be

a.deducted from closing stock()   b.deducted from purchases()

c.Added to sales()                             d.Added to purchase()

25.Good sent  in consignment are

a.Debited to Memorandum Trading account()

b.Credited to Memorandum Trading account()

c.Ignored()

d.Added to Memorandum Trading account()

26.Good sent approval is

a.Debited to Memorandum Trading account()

b.Credited to Memorandum Trading account()

c.Deducted from sales()

d.Added to sales()

27.% of Gross profit should be

a.Fluctuating()    b.Consistent()   c.Increasing ()    d.decreasing()

28.Stock for the purpose of claim should be

a. at marginal price()    b.at market price()  c.at cost() d.at closing price()

29.Salvage refers to

a.Stock destroyed by fire()       b.Stock saved from fire()

c.actual loss incurred ()            d.Stock taken by partner()

30.Credit purchase should be ascertain from

a.Total creditors account()     b.Total Debtors account()

c.Cash account()                        d.sales account()

31.Total Debtors account is prepared to find out

a.Credit sales ()  b.Cash purchase()   c.Cash sales ()    d.Goods in transit()

32.Unrecoded sales should be________

a.Added to Purhcases()            b.Added to sales()  

  c.ignored()                                d.Deducted from sales()

             

33.Purchase of furniture should be______

a.Added to purchase()              b.Deducted from purchase()

c.Ignored()                                  d.credited to purchase()

34.As per average clause insurance company pays compensation

a.Proportionately()                   b.more than the loss()

c.Less than the loss()                 d.equally()

35.Fire insurance provides cover for

a.Tangible assets()  b.Intangible asset() c.Fictitious assets()  d.real asset

36.Goods received in good condition at the time of fire accident is called______a.Salvged goods()              b.Saved goods()

c.Damaged goods()                                   d.Insured goods()

37.Sales Rs.200000,Purchase Rs.130000,wages Rs.18000, closing stock Rs.20000.What was the gross profit?

a.Rs.54000()   b.Rs.50000()   c.Rs.72000()   d.Rs.80000()

38.Sales Rs.200000.purchase Rs.130000, wages Rs.18000 , closing stock Rs.22000, opening stock Rs.20000.What was the Rate of Gross profit?

a.36%()   b.25%()  c.27%()  d.30%()             

39.Sales Rs.330000,PurchaseRs.250000,wages,Rs.25000,opening stock.Rs.10000 more than closing stock.what was the rate of gross profit?

a.19.70% ()          b.13.64%()     c.16.67%()    d.12%()

40.The opening stock is Rs.60000 and the closing stock is Rs.70000.It the purchases during the year are Rs.200000,the cost of goods sold will be

a.Rs.135000()        b.Rs.90000()     c.Rs.150000()   d.Rs.140000()

41.Calculate sales from the following:

Opening stock Rs.50000 closing stock Rs.40000,Purchase less returns Rs.190000,Profit margin is 16.66% on the sales

a.Rs.220000()  b.Rs.2,40,000()    c.Rs.150000()     d.Rs.190000()

42.Goods worth Rs20000 are issued for Rs.15000.It is completely destroyed by the fire.The policy contains an average clause.The loss to be done by the insurance company will be

a.Rs.15000()           b.Rs.10000()      c.Rs.20000()    d.Rs.25000()

43.Find gross profit when GP ratio is 25% on sales and cost of goods sold is Rs.100000.

a.Rs.25000()    b.Rs.33,333()   c.Rs.20000 ()    d.Rs.25000()

44.If the rate of Gross profit is 25% of cost,the amount of gross profit on  a turnover of Rs.100000 will be

a.Rs.25000() b.Rs.20000() c.Rs.33000() d.Rs.49000()

45.Good worth Rs.10,00,000 are insured for Rs.600000.It is completely destroyed by fire.The Loss to be admitted will be

a.Rs.10Lakhs()     b.Rs.6Lakhs()    c.Rs.5Lakhs()     d.Rs.10Lakhs()

46.Stock on the date of fire is a balancing figure in the _________

a.Trading a/c ()       b.Memorandum trading a/c()

c.Profit and Loss a/c()      d.Balance sheet()

47.Average clause in a fire insurance policy applies only in case of_________insurance.

a.under ()        b.Over()   c.Constant()        d.neutral()

48.If GPR is equal to 20% on cost,the gross profit is ___% of sales price.

a.16.67% ()     b.25%()     c.32%() d.30%()

49.Value of stock on date of fire is estimated by preparing__a/c

a.Memorandum trading()  b.Trading a/c() c.Profit and Loss() d.GPR

50.If GPR is equal to 1/4th of cost,the gross profit is equal to______% of sales.

a.20%  () b.25%() c.30%() d.22%()



CLASS: FYBAF II SEM REGULAR

SUB :  FOUNDATION COURSE

 

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1. The term _____ refers to freedom to business enterprises from excessive government control.

            a. privatization            b. liberalization             c. disinvestment        d. globalization

            2. Economic liberalisation was a bold decision by the Prime Minister _________.

            a. Rajiv Ghandhi        b. Narsimha Rao          c. Atal Bihari Bajpai  d. Narendra Modi

 3. The term ______ implies reduction in the role of the public sector and increases the role  of  the private sector in business and non-business activities.

             a. liberalization  b. privatization c.disinvestment    d. globalization

           4. In the state of __________, the number of farmer’s suicides is the highest.

             a. Karnataka          b. Madhya Pradesh        c. Maharashtra          d. Chhattisgarh

            5.  _________ means integrating the national economy with the world’s economy.

a. Disinvestment          b. Privatization      c. Globalization            d. Liberalization

 6. As per the New Industrial Policy, 1991, at present there are only ______ industries reserved for public sector.

              a. Six                b. three                       c. five                            d. four

              7. ______ is the process of selling government equity in PSUs to private parties.

               a. Disinvestment       b. Privatization  c. Globalization         d. Liberalization

               8. __________ means movement or shift of people from one place to another.

               a. Disinvestment         b. Migration         c. Globalization            d. Liberalization

               9. ______ refers to coerced movement of people away from their home.

 a. Regional Migration b. Local Migration  c.Mass Migrationd. Forced             Migration

              10. The government of India has given autonomy to the Board of Directors of PSUs in _____.

                  a. selection      b. recruitment              c. training                  d. decision-making

                      11. ____ is working with farmers by corporate firms and sharing the rewards.

 a. Contract farming b. Corporate farming c. Government farming d. Private farming

            12. As per the New Industrial Policy, 1991, licensing is required in _____ industries.

               a. Six                            b. Seven                    c. Five                        d. Eight

13.____ is undertaken by large corporative firms either by buying the land or taking the land on lease basis.

a. Contract farming  b.Corporate farming c.Government farming     d. Private farming

            14. Article 15 of the Constitution provides for ___ equality and equal access to public                       areas.              

                  a. legal                     b. judicial                   c. social                        d. religious

            15. Humans rights are derived from the principle of ____ law.

             a. government                     b. natural                  c. judicial                   d. human

16. The UDHR consists of a Preamble and ______ articles highlighting human rights and freedoms entitled to everyone in the world.

            a. 15                           b. 20                           c.10                             d. 30

            17. ________ rights aim at personal good of an individual as well as that of the                               community.            

             a. Natural                  b. Fundamental                  c. Enforced               d. Religious

18. Human rights in a more specified and well-defined manner came with the signing of _____ in 1215.

a. UDHR     b. theory of the natural law c. Magna Carta        d. The Natural Rights Duty

            19. Abolition of ___ is provided under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution.

            a. Caste                     b. Child labour                      c. Untouchability    d. racism

            20.____ of the Constitution abolishes the practice of the untouchability.

            a.Article14      b. Article 17         c. Article 18   d. Article 16

21. ____ empowers the citizens to move to the court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.

a. Cultural and Educational Rights           b. Right to Speech   c. Right to Education               d. Right to Constitutional Remedies

            22. Article 21(A) has made ______ education as a fundamental right.

            a. higher        b. secondary     c. primary         c. management

            23. _____ has made primary education as a fundamental right.

            a. Cultural and Educational Rights           b. Right to Speech   c. Right to Education        d. Right to Equality

            24. The objective of the Right to Freedom of Religion is to sustain the principle of _____

            a. secularism                  b. socialism   c. humanism d. regionalism          

25. The ______ are defined as basic human freedoms which every Indian citizen has right to enjoy for proper and harmonious development of personality.

a. Directive Principle of State Policy         b. Fundamental Rights     c. Human Rights      d. Natural Rights

26. Human Rights are those conditions of ________ life without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best.

            a. political                  b. economical                       c. social                    d. personal

27. The National Rights theory first germinated in _______ Theory of Ethics as the basis for politics.

            a. Grotius       b. Locke         c. Hobbes     d. Dr. Ambedkar

            28. Human rights have _____ applications.       

            a. limited        b. maximum  c.universal   d. most

            29. ______ law can be traced to the thoughts of Sophocles and Aristotle.

            a. personal    b. natural      c. human       d. social

30.  Globalisation has improved in the living structure of        

a. All the people       b. Workers in developing countries     c. People in developed countries       d. No people

            31. Which Indian industries have been hit by globalisation?

a. Cement                 

b. Jute                        

c. Toy making                   

d. Information Technology (IT)


32. Which organisations strain on the liberalisation of foreign investment and foreign trade?
a. International Monetary Fund                 b. World Health Organisation

c. World Trade Organisation                   d. International Labour Organisation

33. Tax on imports can be treated as
a. Collateral  b. Trade Barriers    c. Foreign Traded     d. Terms of Trade

34. The main reason behind MNCs investments are ______ 

a. To benefit foreign countries

b. To provide financial support to the country’s government

c. For the welfare of underprivileged people.    

d. To increase the assets and earn profits.

35. Which institute supports investments and foreign trade in India?
a. International Monetary Fund (IMF)       b. World Trade Organisation (WTO)

c. World Bank                                               d. International Labour Organisation (ILO)

36. When did the government remove the barriers for investment and investment in India?
a) 1990                      b) 1991                      c) 1992                       d) 1993

37.  Rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as:
a. Privatisation          b. Globalisation       c. Liberalisation           d. Socialisation

38. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions:
a. of all the people   b. of people in the developed countries               c. of workers in the developing countries        d. no people.

39. World Trade Organisation (WTO) was started at the initiative of which one of the following group of countries?
a. Rich countries      b. Poor countries     c. Developed countries                d. developing countries

40. An MNC is a company that owns or controls production in ____________
a. one country                 b. more than one country

c. only developing countries          d. only developed countries

41. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called ________.

a. Liberalisation            b. Investment       c. Favourable Trade d.Free trade

42.  Companies who set up production units in the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of:
a. 2 years       b. 5 years       c. 4 years       d. 10 years

43. Investment made by MNC’s are termed as ________.

a. Indigenous investment   b. Foreign Investment

c. Entrepreneur’s investment         d. Direct investment

43.It refers to the globalisation which creates opportunities for all and ensures that its benefits are better shared.
a Privatisation  b Special Economic Zones (SEZs) 

c World Trade Organisation (WTO)          d Fair globalisation

44. What was the main channel connecting countries in the past?
a Labour        b Religion      c Technology d Trade

45. ‘The impact of Globalisation has not been fair.’ Who among the following people have not benefitted from globalisation?
a Well off consumers          b Small producers and workers

c Skilled and educated producers d Large wealthy producers

46. Which Indian company was bought over by Cargill Foods—a large American MNC? Pick out the name from the alternatives provided
a Amul                       b Fun Foods Ltd.      c Agro Tech Foods Ltd.       d Parakh Foods

47. In which year did the government decide to remove barriers on foreign trade and investment in India?
a 1993                        b 1992                        c 1991                        d 1990

48.  Which of the following industries have been hard hit by foreign competition?
a Dairy products    b Leather industry

c Cloth industry                    d Vehicle industry

49.  Who is the current chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?

a Justice A.S. Anand                      b Justice H.L. Dattu

c Justice S. Rajendra Babu           d Justice K. Balakrishnan

50. When changes have been made in the National Human Rights Commission Act?

a 2001                        b 1999                        c 2006                        d 2016

 

 CLASS-    FYBAF SEMESTER ll       REGULAR

SUBJECT: BUSINESS      MATHEMATIC 

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1. Divide the number 1000 into two parts such that the ratio is 2:3

(a)250,750  (b) 200,800 (c) 500,500

 2. a^2:b^2 is ……… ratio.

  (a) Triplicate ratio (b) Duplicate ratio (c)                      single ratio

3.The ratio 40 cm to 1 m is

(a)2:5 (b) 3:5 (c) 4:5 (d) 5:2

4.There are 30 boys and 20 girls in a class .The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys.

(a) 2:3 (b) 3:2 (c) 2:5 (d) 3:5

5.The height of Apala is 150 cm. The height of paro is 120 cm .The ratio of the height of Apala to the height of pari is

(a) 4:5 (b) 5:4 (c) 5:2 (d) 4:1

6 .The Monthly  salary of Hari kishan is RS  80000 The monthly salary of Manish is RS 40000 .How many times of the salary of Manish is the Hari kishan.

(a)  2Times (b) 3 times

(c) 4 times (d) 8times

7 .A ratio equivalent to 3:7 is

(a)  3:9 (b) 6:10 (c) 9:21 (d) 18:49

8.The ratio 35:84 in Simplest form is

(a) 5:7        (b) 7:12

 (c) 5:12 (d) 8:7

9. Two numbers are in the ratio 7:9 .If the sum of the numbers is 112 ,then the largest number is

(a) 49 (b) 72 (c) 63 (d) 42

10  The ratio of 1 hour to 300 seconds is

(a)  1:12 (b) 12:1 (c) 1:5 (d) 5:1

11. In 4:7:: 16:28 ,7 and 16 are called

(a) extreme terms (b) middle terms (c) single  term  (d) Double term

12. If 12,21,72,126 are in proportion ,then

(a) 12×21= 72×126 (b)12×72=21×126

(c) 12×126= 21×72 (d)12×12=12×126

13. If x,y and z are in proportion ,then

(a) x:y::z:x, (b) x:y::y:z

(c) x:y::z:y  (d) x:z::y:z

14. 7:12 is equivalent to

(a) 28:40 (b) 42:71 (c) 72:42(d) 42:72

15 The value of m, if 3,18,m,42 are in proportion is:

(a)  6 (b) 54 (c) 7 (d) 8

16 The length and  the width of a field are in the ratio 5:3 .if the width of the field is 42 m then length is:

(a)  100m (b) 80 m (c) 50m (d) 70 m

17 The first, second and fourth terms of a proportion are 16,24 and 54 respectively .Then the third term is

(a)  36 (b) 28 (c) 48 (d) 32

18.If a:b = 2:3 and b:c = 4:3 then find a:b:c

(a) 8:12:9 (b) 2:3:8

(c) 2:3:9 ( d) 2:3 12

19. Find the fourth proportion to 2,3,6

(a) 18 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 4

20. If 2:9::x:18 ,then find the value of x

(a) 2  (b) 3  (c) 4 (d) 6

21.  The salary of A,Band C are in ratio 2:3:5 .If the increment of 15%,10% and 20% are done to their respective salaries then find the new ratio of their salaries .

(a)  20:33:60 (b) 21:33:60

 (c) 22:33:60 (d) 23:33:60

22. If two quantities are related in such a way that increase in 1 quantity causes increase in other quantity ,then this variation is said to be

(a) joint variation

 (b) extreme variation

 (c) Direct variation

 (d) Inverse variation

23.If two quantities are related in such a way that when 1 quantity increases the other quantity decrease,ateden this variation is said to be

(a)Extreme variation

(b)Joint Variation

(c) Direct variation

(d) Inverse variation

24. The ratio of the present age of father to that son is 7: 2 after 10 years their age will be in the ratio of 9:4 the present ages of the father is

(a) 35 years (b) 40 years

(c) 30 years (d) 25 years

25. If a:b= 7:5,b:c =9 :11 ,find a:b:c ?

(a) 63:14:55  (b) 63:45:55

(c) 14:14:15 (d) 7:14:15

26. The price it which a commodity is actually sold in the market is known as

(a) list prize (b) cost a prize

 (c)net selling price (d) BEP

27.If the net selling price exceeds the cost price then there is

(a)profit     (b) loss

(c) no profit no loss

(d)  break even point

28.If the cost price exceeds the need selling price then there is

(a) Profit    (b) loss

 (c) no profit no loss

(d) break even point

29. The final price after deducting all the discounts which is consider for the transaction is called

(a)Discounted list price

(b) Net selling price

(c)List price

(d) Selling price

30.The brokerage from buyer and  seller are……. while calculating total brokerage in a deal of the broker

 (a) Added (b) subtracted

(c) multiplied (d) divided

31. The cash discount is calculated on

(a)net selling price (b) cost price (c) discounted list price (d) none of these

32.The difference between the market value and the net worth all the business is

(a) Profit (b )loss

 (c) Goodwill

(d) no profit no loss

33.The market price is also known as

(a) List price(b) catalogue price (c) both a and B (d) none of these

34. A trade discount is given on

(a) List price

(b)  reduce the list price

(c) cash price     (d) selling price

35. If CP= 2000 profit = 10% find selling price

(a)3000 (b) 3200(c) 2200(d)200

36. A del credere  agent does the following

(a) Sales goods(b) guarantees  collection of dues(d)  both A&B (d) none of these

37. Agent who guarantees the collection of dues from the customer is called

(a) factor (b)  Del credere (c)  Guarantor (d) none of these

38 . A trader sold an article at rupees 14,000 with 40% profit its cost price is

(a)   rupees 12,000

 (b)  rupees 10,000

(c)  rupees 10,400

(d)  rupees 3000

39. By selling bags at  rupees 120 per  piece a shopkeeper made 50% profit the percentage profit he will earn if he sells them at  rupees 110 per piece is

(a) 37.5% ( b)36% (c) 38% (d)  40%

40. By selling mobiles rupees 5000 each a trade made 20% profit if he wants 50% profit then the mobiles should be sold at

(a) Rupees 5500 (b) rupees 7000

 (c) rupees 6000 (d)  rupees 9000

41. The net percentage profit is calculated on….

(a) selling price  (b) cost price.

 (c) invoice price (d) market price

42. The list price of a book is rupees 500 and it’s net selling price after allowing a trade discount of 10% and a further cash discount of 2% is

(a) Rupees 450 (b)Rupeess 441

(c) rupees 430 (d) rupees 900

43. The net percentage profit often article mark do 50% ever the cost price after giving 20% trade discount and 2% cash discount is

(a) 17.6% (b)16%(c)  16.6% (d) none of these

44. Nitin sold a LCD TV  24,000 and got 5% Commission on it if his salary was rupees 15000 per  month thus total payment he received in the month is

(a)Rupees 16,000

 (b) rupees 17,400

 (c) rupees 16,200

(d)  rupees 9000

45 An agent got 2% Commission from seller and 1% Commission from the buyer when a flat was sold for rupees 30 lakhs  the total Commission he received was

(a)  Rupees 1 lakh

(b)  rupees 1,20,000

(c) rupees   1,50,000  

(d) rupees 90000

 

(a)  46. Find Cost price if Selling price = 3000 loss= 20%

(a) 3750 (b)2750(c) 2000 (d)500

47.Milind received 3% Commission on sales of a scooter 8 rupees 40,000 and 2% on sales of a car at rupees 3 lakhs. the total Commission he earned was

(a) Rupees 7200  (b)Rupees 7000 (c) rupees 8000 (d) none of these

48. If x : Y =   2: 3 and y:z= 4:3 ,then x:y:z is

7:11:10   (b) 8:11:9

 (c) 10:12:11 (d) 8:12:9

49. If 12 ,16,k and 20 are in the proportion, the value of k is

(a) 14 (b) 15(c)  16 (d) 20

 50. The triplicate ratio of 1:3 is

(a) 1:27    (b)  1:9

 (c) 1 :26 (d) 3:5

 

 

       

       

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


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