TYBMS - SEM VI - MCQ
UNIVERSITY - EXAMS ONLINE
MCQ – Multiple
Choice Questions
SAMPLE MCQ
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI
SYLLABUS
Will be helpful to
regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online
examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V
class of students.
If it is helpful to you
so also share it among your friends so that they will be also benefited from
it.
ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD
CLASS: T.Y. BMS VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : OPERATIONS RESEARCH
1.
Which of the following considers difference between two least costs for each
row and column while finding initial basic feasible solution in transport?
a.
North west corner rule () b. Least
cost method() c. Vogel’s
approximation () d. Row
minima method ()
2.
To find initial feasible solution of a transportation problem the method which
starts allocation from the lowest cost is called ______ method.
a.
north west corner () b. least cost() c. south east corner () d. Vogel’s approximation()
3.
If M+N-1 = Number of allocations in transportation , it means __________ ( where
“M” is number of rows and “N” is number of columns)
a. There
is no degeneracy () b.
Problem is unbalanced() c.
problem is degenerate() c. solution
is optimal()
4. In a
transportation problem, the method of penalty is called ______.
a. least cost() b. south east corner() c. Vogel’s
approximation() d. north west corner()
5.
When there is degeneracy in the transportation problem, we add an imaginary
allocation called _______ in the solutions.
a.
dummy () b. penalty() c. epsilon() d. regret()
6.
When the total of allocations of a transportation problem match with supply and
demand values, the solution is called _______ solution.
a.
non –degenerate() b.
degenerate() c. feasible() d. infeasible()
7.
When the allocation of a transportation problem satisfy the rim condition
(m+n-1) the solution is called ______ solution.
a.
degenerate() b. infeasible() c. unbounded() d. non-degenerate()
8.
The time required by each job on each machine is called ______ time.
a.
elapsed() b. idle () c. processing() d. average()
9.
The order in which machines are required for completing the jobs is called
______.
a.
machines order() b. working order() c. processing order() d. job order()
10.
The total time required to complete all the jobs in job sequencing problem is
known as ______.
a.
idle time () b. processing time() c. elapsed time () d.
processing order()
11.
The time between the starting of the first job and completion of the last job
in sequencing problem is called ______.
a.
total time() b. assignment time() c. elapsed time () d. idle time()
12.
In sequencing problem the order of completion of jobs is called ______.
a.
completion sequence () b. job
sequence () c. processing order() d. job order()
13.
The time during which a machine remains waiting or vacant in sequencing problem
is called _________ time.
a.
processing () b. idle() c. waiting() d. free()
14.
The various alternatives or courses of action available to each player in a
game are called ______.
a.
saddle points () b. strategies() c. pay-off() d.
’n’ player game ()
15.
The participants in the game are called ______.
a.
clients() b. members() c. customers() d. players()
16.
A situation in a game where in the payoff matrix, maximin of row is equal to
the minimax of column is called ______.
a.
centre point() b.
main point () c.
saddle point() d. equal point()
17.
The game having more than two players is called _____ game.
a.
multi-person() b. many person () c. n-person() d.
unknown person()
18.
In a game, the alternatives or courses of action available to each player are
called _____.
a.
optional() b. choices() c. actions() d. strategies()
19.
The outcome of the interaction and selected strategies of opponents in the game
is called _____.
a.
income() b. profit() c. payoff() d. gains()
20. The
time involved in moving jobs from one machine to another is called ______.
a. negligible() b. positive number() c. significant() d. important()
21. Method
to solve job sequencing problems is known as ______.
a. Johnson’s
Rule() b. earliest due date
rule() c. First come
, first serve rule() d.
slack time remaining()
22.
Saddle point is ______.
a. equilibrium point() b. balanced growth point () c. imbalanced growth point() d. unstable equilibrium point()
23. A strategy that is ______
regardless of what rival players do is called a dominant strategy.
a. penalized() b. enduring loss () c.
worst () d. best()
24.
A ____ occurs when each player selects one of its strategies.
a.
lose() b.
course of action() c.
least () d. play()
25.
The game is fair when value of the game is _____.
a. 1()
b. 0 () c. 2() d. 4()
26.
The best course of action is called _____ strategy.
a. optimal() b. non-optimal() c. mixed () d. pure()
27.
If there _____ player/s in a game , it is known as n person game.
a.
is 1() b. is
2() c.
more then 2() d.
less then 2()
28.
In the Principle of Dominance method if saddle point exists then the matrix is
reduced to ______ matrix .
a. 1x1()
b. 2x2() c. null () d. identify()
29. MODI method is used to obtain ______.
a.
optimal solutions() b.
optimal test() c.
Both a and b() d. optimization()
30.
The solution of any transportation problem is obtained in how many stages?
a. 5() b. 4() c. 3() d. 2()
31.
A game is deterministic when the value of the game is _______.
a.
one () b. zero () c. least() d.
highest ()
32.
A game is probabilistic when value of the game is _____.
a.
equal to 1() b.
equal to 0() c.
not equal to 1() d. not equal
to 10()
33.
A game is called a zero-sum game when value of the game is ______.
a.
0() b. 1() c. 2() d. 4()
34. Processing
time are _______ of order of processing of jobs.
a.
independent () b.
negligible() c.
dependent() d.
reliant()
35.
Transportation algorithm can be used for minimizing the transportation cost of
______ from O origins and D destinations.
a. Goods() b. products() c. items () d. none of these ()
36. When total supply is equal
to total demand in a transportation problem, the problem is said to be
a. balanced() b. unbalanced() c. degerate() d, none of these ()
37. If an opportunity cost
value is used for an unused cell to test optimality, it should be
a. equal to zero() b. most negative number() c. most positive number () d. any value()
38.
A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner
cells of which are occupied is called a
a.
occupied path() b. open path() c. closed path() d. none of these()
39.
An optimal solution is the _____ stage of a solution obtained by improving the
initial solution.
a.
third() b.
first() c.
second() d. final()
40. In
sequencing problem the order of completion of the jobs is called____.
a.
completion sequence () b. job sequence() c. processing order() d. job order≥
41.
To convert a 3-machine problem, say A,B,C to a 2-machine problem the following
conditions needs to be satisfied:______
a. Min A≥ Max B() b. Min C ≥ Max B() c. Min B ≥ Max A() d. either option a or option b()
42. One disadvantage
of using North –West Corner rule to find initial solution to transportation
problem is that
a. it is complicate
to use() b. it does not take
into account cost of transportation() c. it leads to a degenerate initial solution() d. none of these()
43. An alternative
optimal solution to a minimization transportation problem exists whenever
opportunity cost corresponding to unused route of transportation is
a. positive and
greater than zero() b. positive
with at least one equal to zero() c. negative with at least one equal to zero() d. none of these()
44. The occurrence of
degeneracy while solving a transportation problem means that
a. total supply
equals total demand() b. the
solution so obtained is not feasible() c. the few allocations become negative() d. none of these()
45. The dummy source
or destination in a transportation problem is added to
a. satisfy rim
conditions() b.
prevent solution from becoming degenerate() c. ensure that the total cost does not exceed a limit() d. none of these ()
46. The initial
problem of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any known
method. However, the only condition is that _______
a. the solution be
optimal() b. the rim conditions
are satisfied() c. the solution
not be degenerate() d.
none of these()
47. To find initial
feasible solution of a transportation problem the method which starts
allocation from the lowest cost is called ______ method.
a. North west corner() b. least cost() c. south east corner() d. Vogel’s approximation()
48. In a
transportation problem the method of penalties is called ________ method.
a. least cost()
b. south east corner() c. Vogel’s approximation() d. north west corner()
49. Which of the
following method is used to verify the optimality of the current solution of
the transportation problem
a. least cost method () b. Vogel’s approximation method() c. modified distribution method()
d. none of these ()
50. _____ developed
the Game Theory.
a. J. R. Hicks() b. William J. Baumol() c. Neumann Morgenstern() d. Samuelson P. T. ()
CLASS:
TY BMS
SUB : Brand management
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. ………
Function of the marketing that gives Identity or Face value to a product.
a. Branding
b. Market
research
c. Co
branding
d. Marketing
2. ………..
are What companies manufacture where as ……. Are what Consumer buy.
a. Brands
and product
b. Product
and Brand
c. Market
and product
d. Production
and marketing
3. ………….
Is a promise that the product will perform as per Customers Expectations.
a. Product
b. Feasibility
c. Brand
d. Money
4. ………….
Is a set of functional , emotional and rational association and benefit which
have occupied target markets mind.
a. Brand
b. Product
c. Value
d. Money
5. …………..Branding
aims at selling whereas ……..Branding Aims at connecting.
a. Rational
and Emotional
b. Emotional
and rational
c. Hard
and Soft
d. Soft
and hard
6. ……………
aspects of Brand Management includes the core product ,price, packing.
a. Goods
b. Service
c. Tangible
d. Intangible
7. …… aspects of Brand Management includes
product , Positioning , customer experience ets.
a. Goods
b. Services
c. Tangible
d. Intangible
8. Brand
…………… Uses mental maps and perceptual mapping for gauging the perceived
benefits and advantages form the brand.
a. Positioning
b. Resonance
c. Targeting
d. Segmenting
9. Brand
……….. describe how to create intense,
activity loyalty relationship with customer.
a. Positioning
b. Resonance
c. Targeting
d. Segmenting
10. Logo ,
Tagline, jingles are example are ……
a. Brand
Chain
b. Brand
Value
c. Brand awareness
d. Brand
Element
11. A …………… program is coordinated and well
designed set of activity to achieve marketing objectives.
a. Marketing
b. Branding
c. Positioning
d. Service
12. ……….. means linking the brand to some other
entity like corporate brand, celebrity, country of origin event etc.
a. Brand
Element
b. Leveraging
secondary brand association
c. Marketing
d. Branding
13. …………………. Are comprehensive examination of a
brand to, assess its health and uncover its source of equity .
a. Brand
Audit
b. Brand
Study
c. Bran
tracking
d. Brand
building
14. …………. Is a collection of information from consumers
on a routine basis over time .
a. Brand
Audit
b. Brand
Study
c. Brand
Tracking
d. Brand
Building
15. ……………… is a set of organisational process
designed to improve the understanding and use of the brand equity concept with
in a firm.
a. Brand
tracking studies
b. Brand
equity Management system
c. Brand
building
d. Brand
audit
16. …………….
Provide general guideline about branding strategy and the brand element to be
applied across all the different product sold by firm.
a. Brand
Architecture
b. Brand
equity Management system
c. Brand
building
d. Brand
audit
17. ……………….
Is a set of a different brand that a particular firm offers for sale to buyers
in a particular category
a. Brand
Architecture
b. Brand
Portfolio
c. Brand
Audit
d. Brand
tracking
18. ………………
Displays the number and nature of command and distinctive brand components
across the firms set of brands.
a. Brand
hierarchy
b. Brand
portfolio
c. Brand
audit
d. Brand
tracking
19. Customer
based Brand equity has been developed by ………………………
a. Philip
Kotlar
b. David johnson
c. Marshall
d. Kevin
keller
20. ……………………
is defined as the differential effect that brand knowledge has an customer response to the marketing of
the brand.
a. Customer
Based Brand equity
b. Producer
Based Brand equity
c. Marketer
based brand equity
d. Supplier
based brand equity
21. …………………………..
means what consumer have learned ,felt, seen and heard about the brand.
a. Brand
Audit
b. Brand
tracking
c. Brand
Knowledge
d. Brand
equity
22. ………………
is when consumer react more favourably to a product and the way it is marketed
when the brand is identified then when it is not.
a. Positive
Customer based brand equity
b. Negative
customer based brand equity
c. Zero
Customer based brand equity
d. One
Customer based brand equity
23. ………………
is the level of consumer consciousness of a company.
a. Brand Audit
b. Brand
Awareness
c. Brand
Image
d. Brand
Study
24. Unaided
recall is also known as …………….
a. Brand
recognition
b. Brand
Awareness
c. Brand
Image
d. Brand
Recall
25. Aided
brand recall is known as…..
a. Brand
recognition
b. Brand
Awareness
c. Brand
Image
d. Brand
Recall
26. …………
refers to the ability of the consumer to correctly elicit a brand name from
memory when prompted by a product category.
a. Brand
recognition
b. Brand
recall
c. Brand
Audit
d. Brand
study
27. The ………… can be seen as a mark of quality and are
perceived as credible.
a. Celebrity
endorsement
b. Third
party source
c. Licensing
d. Co
branding
28. Sponsorship
at Olympics is an example of leveraging…………….. brand association to enhance
brand equity.
a. First
b. Primary
c. Secondary
d. Third
29. ……………….
Breaks the clutter for the brand.
a. Celebrity
endorsement
b. Third
party source
c. Cobranding
d. Primary
30. Disney
leverages secondary brand association through………………
a. Celebrity
endorsement
b. Third
party source
c. Co
branding
d. Licensing
31. …………..
is also know as brand partnership.
a. Leveraging
b. Co-
Branding
c. Third
party endorsement
d. Branding
32. Ingredient
branding is a form of …………….
a. Co
branding
b. Leveraging
c. Third
party endorsement
d. Branding
33. The
concept of “made in” a particular country refers to …………….
a. Leveraging
b. Co
Branding
c. Country
of origin
d. People
34. ……………
is an act of using the brand name of the company in the overall advertising efforts
and all the communication to the stakeholders.
a. Corporate
branding
b. Co
branding
c. Leveraging
d. Brand
35. …………..
means relating existing brands with corporate image.
a. Co
branding
b. Corporate
branding
c. Leverage
d. Brand
36. Choosing
brand elements developing marketing programs and……………..enhance overall brand
equity .
a. Co
branding
b. Corporate
branding
c. Brand
image
d. Leveraging
secondary brand association (LSBA)
37. Employees
are endorsers are the root through ………… for leveraging secondary brand
association
a. People
b. Things
c. Brand
d. Value
38. Channels
of distribution and country of origin are the root through ………………. For LSBA.
a. People
b. Things
c. Place
d. Value
39. Distribution
channels are part of the ……. Process, Answering questing “how do we get our
product to the consumer” ?
a. Upstream
b. Down stream
c. Level
d. Value
40. A
……………. Is the path by which all goods and services must travel to arrive at the
intended consumer .
a. Distribution
channel
b. Country
of origin
c. Brand
d. Things
41. The
goal of …………. Is to create strong, even emotional, customer connection to a
brand.
a. Level
b. Market
c. Relationship
marketing
d. Transactional
marketing
42. ………….
Includes money , time, and labour.
a. Relationship
marketing
b. Perceived
cost
c. Perceived
benefit
d. Price
strategy
43. …………………… exists on three levels that are
physical, logical, emotional.
a. Perceived
costs
b. Perceived
benefit
c. Price
strategy
d. Product
strategy
44. ……………
is define as the road map of the product.
a. Product
strategy
b. Price
strategy
c. Place
strategy
d. Promotional
Strategy
45. ……………..
is an approach to selling goods and services in which a prospect explicitly
agrees in advance to receive marketing information.
a. Relationship
marketing
b. Brand
marketing
c. Permission
marketing
d. Goal
marketing
46. The
concept of permission marketing has been popularized by ………………….
a. Seth
godin
b. Philip
kotlar
c. Kelvin
keller
d. Marshall
47. Experiential
marketing is also known as ……………….
a. Permission
marketing
b. Brand
marketing
c. Relationship
marketing
d. Engagement
marketing
48. The
goal of ……………. Is to truly engage customers or prospective customers by
communicating with each as an individual
.
a. Relationship
marketing
b. Personalized
marketing
c. Permission
marketing
d. Engagement
marketing
49. A
……………….. is a short song ot tune used in advertising and for other commercial
uses.
a. Tagline
b. Jingle
c. Logo
d. Symbol
50. Amul
girl is an Example of ……………..
a. Brand
Mascot
b. Engagement
marketing
c. Tagline
d. Jingle
CLASS: TYBFM
SUBJECT:INDIRECT TAX
1. GST
stands for _______________
A]
Goods and Supply Tax B]
Goods and Sales Tax
C] Goods and Services Tax D] Goods and Simple Tax
2. In India, GST structure is _______ in
nature.
A] Dual B] single C]
triple D] quadruple
3.GST was introduced in India
on ?
A]
1-4-2017 B] 01-07-2017 C] 01-03-2017 D] 01-05-2017
4. Supply of following is not liable to
GST
A] Alcoholic liquor for medicinal consumption B] Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
C] Alcoholic
liquor for industrial consumption
D] Alcoholic liquor for animal
consumption
5. HSN code stands for :
A] Harmonised system number B] Home Shopping Network C] Home State Number
D] Harmonised System of Nomenclature
6. The item which will be
taxable under both GST as well Central
Excise Law even after
implementation of the GST Act.
A] motor spirit B] natural gas C] Tobacco and Tobacco
products
D] Alcoholic liquor for human
consumption
7. Which of the
following taxes have not been subsumed
under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C] Service tax D] Stamp duty
8. The __________ is the chairperson is
GST council.
A] Union Finance Minister B] State
Finance minister C] President D] Home minister
9. Compensation under Goods And Service Tax Compensation Act,
2017,will be provided to a state for a period of ______ years from the date on which the state brings its SGST
act into force.
A] Three B]Four C]Five
D]Two
10. Gifts not exceeding
__________ in value in a financial year
by an employer to an employee
shall not be treated as supply
of goods or both.
A] 50,000
B]60,000 C]70,000 D]35,000
11. Temporary transfer or permitting the use
or enjoyment of any intellectual
property
right shall be
treated as __________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
12. Renting of immovable
property is ___________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
13. Services of funeral,
burial , crematorium or mortuary including transportation of
the deceased shall be treated as ___________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
14. ______________ means a
supply made by a taxable person to a
recipient consisting of two or more
taxable supplies of goods and services or both, or any combination thereof ,
which are naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the
ordinary course of
business, one of which is
principal supply.
A] Composite supply B]
Principal supply C] mixed supply D] inward supply
15. Persons shall be deemed to
be “related persons” if any person directly or indirectly owns,controls or
holds _______ or more of the outstanding voting stock or
shares or both of them.
A]35% B]40% C]50% D]25%
16. Development, design,
programming, customization, adaption , upgradation ,
enhancement , implementation of information
technology software shall be treated as____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
17. The functions performed by
members of Parliament, Members of State Legislature, Members of Gram Panchayat
and other local authorities shall be treated as______________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
18. _____________ means two or
more individual supplies of goods or services, or any combination thereof, made
in conjunction with each other by a taxable person for a single price where
such supply does not constitute a composite supply.
A] Composite supply B]
Principal supply C] mixed supply D] inward supply
19. ________ is levied on
inter state supply of goods.
A]CGST B] SGST
C]IGST D]UTGST
20. Agreeing to an obligation
to refrain from an act , or to tolerate an act or a situation or
to do an act is _________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
21. IGST means_______________
.
A] Inter- state GST B] Integrated GST C] Import GST D] International GST
22. Which of the following is
a composite supply?
A] Doctor's service with
medicines B] package with fruits and chocolates
C] supply of computer printer
with laptop D] coaching centre with monthly excursions on trekking
23. GST is ____________ .
A] direct tax B] destination based C] foreign tax
D]Origin based
24. ___________ is levied on
Intra State supplies of Goods / Services.
A] Only CGST B] IGST C] Only SGST D] Both CGST &
SGST
25. An Intra State supply
within Union Territory will be subject to levy of ____________
A] IGST B]CGST & SGST C] UTGST & CGST D] Exempt
26. In GST taxable event is
_____________
A] Manufacture B] Sale C]
Barter D]Supply
27. Direct taxes are
____________ in nature
A] Regressive B]
progressive C] Tax on tax D] value added tax
28. Indirect taxes are
____________ in nature
A] Regressive B]
progressive C] Tax on tax D] value added tax
29. Any transfer of the title
in goods is a supply of ____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
30. ____________ specifies the
activities which are treated as supply even if
made without consideration
A] Schedule I of CGST Act B]
Schedule II of CGST Act C] Schedule III of CGST Act
D] Schedule IV of CGST Act
31. . _____________ consists
of activities or transactions which shall be treated neither supply of goods nor a supply of services.
A] Schedule I of CGST Act B] Schedule II of CGST Act
C] Schedule III of CGST Act
D] Schedule IV of CGST Act
32. Services by any court or tribunal established under any law for the time being
in force are
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
33. Actionable claims ,other than betting,
gambling and lottery shall be treated as ____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
34. Hire purchase of goods is ___________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
35. A Mobile phone is sold
with a mobile charger to a customer for a Rs.60,000. The CGST and SGST laptop is 18% and for laptop bag is 28%. What
would be applicable rate of tax
leviable?
A] 46% B]28% C]18% D]0%
36. GST is a national level
tax based on __________
A] last point of tax principle
B] first point of tax principle C] value added principle
D]value deducted principle
37. Shoppers stop Ltd offers a
combo pack of shirt, wallet and perfume for Rs.2000. The rate of tax for shirt, wallet and perfume are 12%,5% and 10%
respectively. The applicable rate of tax for the combo pack will be _____
A] 10% B]5% C]27% D]12%
38. . The idea of GST in India
was first mooted by _____________.
A]Kishan task force B]Kelkar
task force C]Congress task force D]BJP task force
39. Which of the following taxes have not been subsumed under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C] Electricity duty d]Central
sales tax
40. Which of the following taxes have not been subsumed under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C]octroi duty d]Profession tax
41.
____________ has been appointed as the Managed service provider of GSTN.
A]
Infosys B]TCS
C]Reliance Ltd D]RBI
42.
GSTN stands for _____________
A]Goods
and service tax number B]Goods and service tax network C]Goods and
service tax note
D]Goods
and service tax nation
43.
The quorum of GST council meeting is _________ of members.
A]20%
B]30% C]50% D]60%
44.
The CGST Act,2017 extends to _______________
A]
Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir
B]Whole
of India
C] Whole
of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir and Union Territories
D] Whole
of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir but including Union Territories
45.
GST council was formed under article __________
A]229B B]279C C]297A D]279A
46.____________
petroleum products have been temporarily been kept out of GST.
A] One
B]Two C] Five D]Four
47. An
easement to occupy land is supply of
___________
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service
C] neither supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
48.
Transfer or disposal of goods forming part of the assets of the business is
________________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
49.
Sale of land is _____________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C]
neither supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
50.
Supply of warehoused goods to any person before clearance for home consumption
is _______________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C]
either supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
neither supply of goods or a supply of service
CLASS: T.Y.Bms-VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : International Finance
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. Statistical
residue is a part of_______.
(a) Errors
and omissions (b) Current account (c) Capital account
(d) Reserve account .
2. Sale or purchase of gold in BoP is covered under ______.
(a) Capital account (b) Current account (c) Official
reserve account
(d) Balancing items
3. FDI stands for ______.
(a) Foreign direct intermediation (b) Foreign domestic investment (c) Foreign direct intervention (d) Foreign direct investment
4. FDI in BoP is covered under ______.
(a) Capital account
(b) Current account (c)
Official reserve account (d) Balancing
items
5. The ______ of a country is a systemic account, in the
form of summarized record, of all economic transactions between residents of a
country and non-residents over a given period of time.
(a) Balance of trade
(b) Balance of Payments (c)
Balance of visible trade (d) Balance of
invisible trade
6. The BoP covers period of _______.
(a) 6 months (b) 36
months (c) 12 months (d) 3 months
7. _______ account includes imports and exports of
goods/services and unilateral transfer of goods/services including transfer of
money for family living expenses.
(a) Current account
(b) Capital account (c)
Official reserve account (d) Balancing
items
8. ______ records all international transaction that
involve creation of assets and liabilities in foreign currencies.
(a) Current account
(b) Capital account (c)
Official reserve account (d) Balancing
items
9. ______ effectively reflects the net flow of goods,
services and unilateral transfers.
(a) Current account (b) Capital account (c) Official reserve account (d) Balancing items
10. ______ also relates to international assets and
liabilities for such transactions which the country’s monetary authorities use
to settle the deficits and surpluses that arise out of other two categories of
accounts.
(a) Reserve account
(b) Capital account (c)
Current account (d) Balancing items
11. ______ decide upon the tariff and duties to be levied
on imports basis the BoP data.
(a) RBI (b)
EXIM (c) Government (d) NABARD
12. ______ use the data of BoP to formulate Monetary and
Fiscal policies.
(a) Policymakers (b)
Commercial bank (c) NBFC (d) Forex
13. For ______, Government can adopt various measures in
order to enhance exports and increase foreign currency inflows.
(a) Developed nations
(b) Foreign exchange market (c) Developing
economies (d) Stock market
14. ______ use BoP data to decide upon various policies
suitable for their business and industry.
(a) Corporates (b)
Government (c) Stock exchange (d) AMC
15. ______ is described as the difference between the value
of merchandise exports and the value of merchandise imports.
(a) Balance of payment
(b) Balance of trade (c)
Balancing items (d) Unilateral transfers
16. ______ is also known as balance of merchandise trade,
and it covers all transactions related to movable goods where the ownership of
goods changes from residents to non-residents
and from non-residents to residents.
(a) Balance of visible trade (b) Balance of invisible trade c) Balance of payments (d) Unilateral transfers
17. ______ records all the services exported and imported
by a country in a year.
(a) Balance of visible trade (b) Balance of invisible trade (c) Balance of payments (d) Unilateral transfers
18. ______ is an economic transaction between residents of
two nations over a stipulated period of time usually a calender year.
(a) Cash transactions
(b) credit transactions (c) Unilateral
transfers (d) Currency exchange
19. Unilateral transfers are included in the ______ account
of a nation’s balance of payment.
(a) Current (b)
Capital (c) Reserve (d) Balancing items
20. A transaction undertaken in normal course of business
in response to given environment of price levels, exchange rates, interest
rates etc.
(a) Autonomous Items (b) Accommodating Items (c) Cash transaction (d) Credit transaction
21. A transaction undertaken with specific intention of
adjusting the imbalance arising out of other transaction.
(a) Cash transaction
(b) Autonomous Items c) Accommodating
Items (d) Credit transaction
22. If the domestic expenditure of the economy is more than
the domestic output, it results in ______.
(a) BoP deficit (b)
Bop imbalance (c) Loss (d) Profit
23. ______ refers to the freedom to convert the domestic
currency into another currencies.
(a) Capital account convertibility (b) Currency convertibility (c) Foreign exchange market (d) FEMA
24. ______ is the freedom of foreign investors to purchase
Indian financial assets and that of the domestic citizens to purchase foreign
financial assets.
(a) Capital account convertibility (b) Currency convertibility (c) Foreign exchange market (d) FEMA
25. The ______ is a subset of the national balance sheet.
(a) IIP (b)
FII c) FDI (d) CP
26. A ______ is the price of a foreign currency.
(a) Bid Price (b)
Ask Price (c) Foreign exchange rate (d) Swap rate
27. A ______ is the exchange rate in one currency at which
a dealer will buy another currency.
(a) Bid Price (b)
Ask Price (c) Foreign exchange rate (d) Swap rate
28. An ______ is the exchange rate at which the dealer will
sell the other currency.
(a) Bid Price (b) Ask
Price (c) Foreign exchange rate (d) Swap rate
29. Under the ______ the variations of the exchange rates
are inversely related to the changes in the value of the domestic currency.
(a) Direct Quote (b)
Indirect Quote (c) Spot Quote (d) Forward Quote
30. Under _______ the rise and fall of exchange rates are
directly related to the changes in the value of domestic currency.
(a) Direct Quote (b)
Indirect Quote (c) Spot
Quote (d) Forward Quote
31. ______ is known as today’s quote.
(a) Direct Quote (b)
Spot Quote (c) Inter-bank
Quote (d) Forward Quote
32. ______ is the quote which is average of the Bid and Ask
price.
(a) Direct Quote (b)
Inter-bank Quote (c) Mid Quote (d) Forward Quote
33. ______ indicates the rate at which exchange of
currencies take place on the next working day after the date of deal.
(a) Tom (b)
Cash (c) Spot (d)Forward
34. ______ is the account maintained by a domestic bank
with a foreign bank in foreign currency.
(a) Current (b) Nostro (c) Vostro (d) Loro
35. ______ is the account maintained by a foreign bank with
a domestic bank in domestic currency.
(a) Current (b)
Nostro (c) Vostro (d) Loro
36. ______ is the account maintained by domestic bank on
behalf of other domestic bank in foreign bank in foreign currency.
(a) Current (b)
Nostro (c) Vostro (d) Loro
37. Calculate inverse quote: GBP 1 = INR 99.1100/99.9900
(a) 0.0100/0.0101
(b) 0.0103/0.0104 (c) 0.0105/0.0106 (d) 99.1200/99.1300
38. USD EUR 0.7950/80, EUR USD?
(a) 1.2541/1.2569
(b) 1.2670/1.2680 (c) 1.2531/1.2579 (d) 1.2555/1.2565
39. USD INR 61.4141/61.5151, INR USD?
(a) 0.0163/0.0163
(b) 0.0165/0.0166 (c)
0.0163/0.0167 (d) 0.0011/0.0012
40. GBP USD 1.6666/1.7777, USD INR 60.1111/60.2222, What is
INR GBP rate?
(a) 0.0100/0.0101
(b) 0.0102/0.0103 (c)
0.0103/0.0103 (d) 0.0104/0.0105
41. EUR USD 1.2650/1.2680, Calculate Mid-rate
(a) 1.2667 (b) 1.2665 (c)1.3267
(d) 1.2668
42. EUR USD 1.2650/1.2680, Calculate Spread
(a) 0.0030
(b) 0.0040 (c) 0.0027 (d) 0.0050
43. EUR USD 1.2650/1.2680, Calculate %Spread
(a) 0.35% (b)
0.22% (c) 0.39% (d) 0.24%
44. ______ is also known as Mid-rate.
(a) Spread (b) Mean-rate (c) Exchange rate (d) Bid-rate
45. Spot rate is also called as ______.
(a) Future price (b)
Forward price (c) Swap price (d) Current market price
46. Inverse quote for USD/DKK 5.7935 - 5.8085 is:
(a) DKK/USD 0.1722-0.1726 (b) USD/DKK 0.1722-0.1726 (c) DKK/USD 0.1726-0.1722 (d) USD/DKK 0.1726-0.1722
47. Inverse quote for 1 GBP = 99.1100/9900 INR is INR GBP
______.
(a) 0.0101/0.0100
(b) 0.0100/0.0105 (c)
0.0105/0.0100 (d) 0.0100/0.0101
48. SBI A/c with HSBC in UK is an example of ______.
(a) Loro (b) Vostro (c) Nostro (d) SWIFT
49. In spot market, exchange of currencies take place on
______.
(a) T + 1 (b) T +
2 (c) T + 0 (d) T + 4
50. The quote 1 GBP = Rs 99.85 is a direct quote for
______.
(a) India (b)
US (c) UK (d) Japan
CLASS: T.Y.Bms-VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : Innovative Financial Services
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. All types
of activities which are of a financial nature is called as?
(a) Financial
activity b) Financial services (c) Financial market (d) Financial exchange
2. Financial services can also be called as?
(a) Financial
intermediation (b)
Financial practice (c) Forfaiting (d) Factoring
3. From
below given options select characteristics of financial services:
(a) Economic
growth (b) Provision of liquidity (c)
Contribution to GNP (d) Perishability
4. Financial
services cannot be standardized or reproduced in the same form. Which
characteristics define this:
(a) Variability (b) Intangibility (c) Inseparability (d) Perishability
5. From
below given options select fund based activities of financial services:
(a) Securitization (b) Hire purchase (c) Stock broking (d) Merchant banking
6. Financial
services cannot be stored. They have to be supplied when customers need them.
Which characteristics define this:
(a) Variability (b) Intangibility (c) Inseparability (d) Perishability
7. Select
from below given options who provides financial services:
(a) Portfolio
Managers (b) PR agency (c) Coaching institute (d) Recruitment agency
8. Which
organization is a financial intermediary who helps to shift capital from those
who possess it to those who need it?
(a) Credit
rating agency (b) Underwriters (c) Merchant banking (d) Mutual funds
9. From
below given options select non-fund based activities of financial services:
(b) Securitization (b) Hire purchase (c) Seed capital (d) Insurance services
10.
It
refers to the process of managing the sales register of a client by a financial
services company.
(a) Forfeiting
(b) Leasing (c) Factoring (d) Custodial services
11.
A
transaction where the delivery of foreign currency takes place at a specified
future date for a specified price. It may have a fixed or flexible maturity
date.
(a) Futures (b) Forward (c) Options (d) Swaps
12.
What is Equity, Debt, Hybrid and Mutual funds?
(a) Financial
instruments (b)
Market players (c) Financial
organizations (d) Commodity market products
13.
What is
the organization which includes Government department, RBI, SEBI, BIFR etc
known as?
(a) Custodial
services (b) Regulatory bodies (c) Financial organizations (d) Merchant bankers
14.
It is a
technique whereby a financial company converts its ill-liquid, non-negotiable
and high value financial assets into securities of small value which are made
tradable and transferable.
(a) Derivative
security (b) Factoring (c) Securitization of debt (d) Forfeiting
15.
When did Indian economy got liberalized?
(a) 1990 (b) 1991
(c) 1987 (d) 1985
16.
What brought complete transformation in the
Indian financial services industry?
(a) Privatization (b) Liberalization (c)Globalization (d)Reformation
17.
The number of stock exchanges in the country
has gone up to _____ in 1994.
(a) 20 (b) 17
(c) 22 (d) 25
18.
Which organization liberalized many stringent
conditions so as to boost the capital and money markets?
(a) SEBI (b) RBI (c) NABARD
(d) EXIM
19.
India has how many public sector banks?
(a) 20 (b) 35
(c)23 (d)37
20.
Identify problems in Financial services sector:
(a) Lack
of transparency (b)
Lack of money (c) Lack of regulatory
body (d) Inefficient system
21.
What is financial institution that provide
banking services, but do not hold a banking license called as?
(a) Mutual
funds (b) NBFC (c) EXIM
(d) NABARD
22.
In India, which organization is heart of the
Indian financial and Monetary system?
(a) RBI (b) SEBI (c) EXIM
(d) NABARD
23.
When was RBI established?
(a) 1935 (b) 1936 (c)1948
(d) 1932
24.
When was SEBI established?
(a) 1966 (b) 1983
(c) 1988 (d) 1987
25.
Who promotes investor education and training of
intermediaries in securities market?
(a) RBI (b) SEBI
(c) EXIM (d) NABARD
26.
NBFC is a company registered under _________
(a) The
Indian contract Act (b) The Companies
Act,1956 (c) The RBI Act (d) The SEBI Act
27.
The maximum load that a fund can exchange is
determined by _____
(a) SEBI (b) RBI (c) AMFI
(d) Distributing Agent
28.
_______ is a market for financial assets which
have a long or indefinite maturity.
(a) Financial
system (b) Financial market (c) Capital market (d) Money market
29.
A set of complex and closely connected
instructions, agents, practices, markets transactions, claims and liabilities
relating to financial aspects of an economy is referred as _______
(a) Financial
system (b)
Financial market (c) Financial
institution (d) Financial management
30.
________ provides resources to finance
receivables.
(a) Factoring (b) Forfaiting (c) RBI
(d) Mutual funds
31.
The buyer of the receivable is called as ________
(a) Investor (b) Broker
(c) Factor (d) Seller
32.
________ is the method of converting
receivables into cash.
(a) Factoring (b) Underwriting (c) Advisory services (d) Forfaiting
33.
________ is to collect cash against receivables
on due date from the customers of the clients and furnish reports to the
client.
(a) Receivable
management (b)
Information services (c) Bad debts (d) Sales ledger administration
34.
What is levied for the work involved in
administering the sales ledger as well as protection against bad debts?
(a) Bad
debts charges (b) Service fee (c) Interest (d) Discount charge
35.
In this type of factoring, the factor only
manages the receivables without taking any risk like bad debts etc.
(a) Non-recourse
factoring (b) Maturity factoring (c) Recourse factoring (d) Maturity factoring
36.
In this type of factoring, the factor gives
advance to the client against receivables and collects interest for the period
extending from the date of advance to the date of collection.
(a) Non-recourse
factoring (b) Maturity factoring (c) Recourse factoring (d) Invoice discounting
37.
In factoring, cash can be got on the invoices
within how many hours?
(a) 24
hours (b) 12 hours (c) 4 hours
(d) 15 hours
38.
It is a very specialized form of International
Factoring, used when suppliers are selling large volumes to a few debtors for
which it is difficult to cover the credit risk in International Factoring.
(a) Direct
Import Factoring (b) Direct Export
Factoring (c) Back to Back Factoring (d) Single/direct Factoring system
39.
When did RBI issued guidelines for factoring
services?
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992
(d) 1994
40.
When did the first factoring company- SBI
factors and commercial ltd started its operation?
(a) 1990
(b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993
41.
When was Kalyansundaram Committee appointed by
RBI?
(a) 1998 (b) 1986 (c) 1989
(d) 1999
42.
________
is defined as ‘ the non-recourse purchase by a bank or any other financial
institution, of receivables arising from an export of goods and services ‘.
(a) Factoring (b) Forfeiting (c) Receivables (d) Tariffs
43.
Under forfeiting, exporter and importer sign
which contract?
(a) Commitment
to purchase debt (b) Delivery of goods
contract (c) Commercial contract (d) Payment to the forfeiter contract
44.
Forfaiting in India became available in India’s
financial market from ________
(a) 1992 (b) 1998 (c) 1985
(d) 1990
45.
The cost of forfaiting is determined by the
rate of discount based on the aggregate of ?
(a) MIBOR (b) LIBOR
(c) NSE (d) BSE
46.
________ services are mainly provided to
foreign investors.
(a) Custodial
services (b)
Financial services (c) Factoring services (d) Forfaiting services
47.
Finance is not available in the following
factoring services ________
(a) Without
recourse factoring (b) with recourse
factoring (c) Maturity factoring (d) Invoice discounting
48.
Which of the following is not necessarily a
party to a forfaiting transaction?
(a) Exporter (b) Importer
(c) Broker (d) Bank
49.
The central theme of forfaiting is the
purchasing of ________ by a financial service company.
(a) Trade
bills (b) Export bills (c) Asset
(d) Import bills
50.
Buying a company’s accounts receivable on a
non-recourse basis is known as ________
(a) Trading (b) Billing
(c) Factoring (d) Funding
CLASS: TYBMS
SUBJECT:FINANCING RURAL DEVELOPMENT
1. In case of a manufacturing sector, an enterprise is considered
as a micro enterprise if the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed
__________
A]1 crore b]25lakhs c]5 crore d]50lakhs
2. In case of a manufacturing sector, an enterprise is
considered as a small enterprise if the investment in plant and machinery does
not exceed __________
A]10 crore b]25lakhs c]5 crore
d]50lakhs
3. In case of a manufacturing sector, an enterprise is
considered as a Medium enterprise if the investment in plant and machinery does
not exceed __________
A]10 crore b]25lakhs c]5 crore d]50lakhs
4. The headquarter of SIDBI is at __________
A]Lucknow
B]Mumbai C]Chennai D]Kolkatta
5. In case of a service sector, an enterprise is
considered as a micro enterprise if the investment in equipment does not exceed
__________
A]2 crore B]5 crore C]20 lakh D]10 lakh
6. In case of a service sector, an enterprise is
considered as a small enterprise if the investment in equipment does not exceed
__________
A]2 crore
B]5 crore C]20 lakh D]10 lakh
7. In case of a service sector, an enterprise is
considered as a medium enterprise if the investment in equipment does not
exceed __________
A]2 crore B]5 crore C]20 lakh D]10 lakh
8. The _________ is a head association of the Ministry of
Skill Development and entrepreneurship.
A]NIESDBUD B]SIDBI C]NSIC D]IIE
9. _____________ also called as democratized funding is a web based tool which onvolves seeking
mainly smaller funds from multiple
lenders through social platform to fund new ventures.
A] Private equity B]Factoring C]Crowd funding
D] Peer to Peer lending
10._____________ involves selling of
accounts receivable to a third
party
at a
discounted rate to meet the working capital requirements.
A] Private equity B]Factoring C]Crowd
funding D] Peer to Peer lending
11. __________ funds are those which are utilized for high
risk and high reward investment.
A] Working capital B]Risk capital C]Seed
capital D]Long term capital
12.Ceiling on the loan under the
Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
is
____________
A]Rs. 1 crore B]Rs.10
crore C]Rs.100 Crore D]Rs.50 Crore
12. A Composite Loan Limit of _________ can be sanctioned by banks to
enable the MSME entrepreneurs to avail of their working capital and term loan
requirement through single window.
A] Rs.10lakh B] Rs.25 Lakh C]Rs.50Lakh D]Rs. 1
crore
13. The individuals who have surplus money with them and
also have keen interest in funding the MSME’s are called __________
A] Equity investors B]Private investors C] surplus
investors
D]Angel investors
14. ____________
is registered with the SEBI for rating the issue of shares,IPO’s etc.
A]CGTMSE B]SMERA C]SIDBI D]NSIC
15. Banks are regulated by ____________
A]Banking
regulation Act,1949 B]
Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
C] Banking regulation
Act,1940 D] Reserve Bank of India Act,1932
16. A banking company in India is required to transfer
atleast _____
of the total profit in the current year to reserve
fund which would be called as statutory reserve
A]35% B]40% C] 50% D]25%
17. A ___________ is the one in which the borrower fails
to make repayment of the interest as
well as the principal for a period not exceeding 90 days.
A] Doubtful assets B]Sub standard assets
C] Standard assets D]Loss assets
18. An asset which is not performing for a period not
exceeding 12 months is known as ____________
A] Doubtful assets B]Sub
standard assets
C] Standard assets
D]Loss assets
19. A __________ is the one which has been sub standard in
performing for more than 12 months.
A] Doubtful assets B]Sub standard assets
C] Standard assets D]Loss assets
20. When the bank advances amount to the customer and
fails to recover the principal as well as the interest amount , there is a huge
burden on the assets of the banking company which are termed as ______________
A] Non performing assets B] Performing assets
C]Loss assets
D] Debt assets
21. ___________ has to be maintained in the form of liquid
cash according to the share of a bank’s
total deposit which is mandated by RBI.
A] Statutory liquidity ratio B] Profit ratio
C]Cash reserve
ratio D]Sales ratio
22. __________ is defined as the share of bank’s total
deposit that it needs to maintain as
liquid assets.
A] Statutory
liquidity ratio B] Profit ratio
C]Cash reserve ratio D]Sales ratio
23. While preparing
financial statements of a banking company ,
__________ is prepared for deposits.
A] Schedule 1 B] Schedule 2 C] Schedule 3 D] Schedule
4
24. While preparing
financial statements of a banking company ,
__________ is prepared for Share capital.
A] Schedule 1 B] Schedule 2 C] Schedule 3 D] Schedule 4
25. While preparing financial statements of a banking
company ,
__________ is prepared for Reserves and surplus.
A] Schedule 1 B] Schedule 2 C] Schedule 3 D]
Schedule 4
26. A Provision of _______ is made for loss assets.
A]200% B]50% C]100% D]150%
27. _________ is a company that provides banking services
to people without holding a bank license.
A] Fin tech company B] Non banking financial
company
C] Banking company D] Public company
28. A provision of ________ is to be created for sub
standard assets that are secured ones.
A]10%
B]15% C]40% D]20%
29. A provision of ________ is to be created for sub
standard assets that are unsecured ones.
A]10% B]15% C]40% D]20%
30. A general
provision of _____ is created for
standard assets which belong to agricultural or SME sector.
A]1% B]0.25% C]0.40% D] 2%
31. A general
provision of _____ is created for
standard assets which belong to real estate sector.
A]1% B]0.25%
C]0.40% D] 0.50%
32. Unclaimed dividend is shown by banks under _________
A]Other
liabilities and provision B]Borrowings C]Advances D] Deposits
33. ZED in the context of MSME’s
stands for ___________
A] Zero Defect Zero Effect B]Zero Effect
Zero Defect
C]Zero Delays Zero Effect D]Zero effectiveness Zero Defectiveness
34. A general
provision of _____ is created for
standard assets which belong to sector
other than agricultural,SME and real estate sector.
A]1%
B]0.25% C]0.40% D] 0.50%
35. _________ refers to the lack of
critical information that is required by banks to make the lending decision.
A]Moral hazard B]information asymmetrics C]forgery D]Granularity
36. In India, banking license is
provided by the _______
A]SEBI B]CENTRAL
GOVERNMENT C]STATE GOVERNMENT D]RBI
37. NBFC’s are registered under __________
A] Banking regulation
act B]Reserve bank of India Act
C]Companies Act D]MSME Act
38. While preparing financial statements of a banking
company ,
__________ is prepared
for investments.
A] Schedule 6 B] Schedule 7 C]
Schedule 8 D] Schedule 9
39. While preparing
financial statements of a banking company
__________ is prepared
for advances.
A] Schedule 6 B]
Schedule 7 C] Schedule 8 D] Schedule 9
40. While preparing financial statements of a banking company
__________ is prepared
for interest earned.
A] Schedule 16 B]
Schedule 12 C] Schedule 13 D] Schedule 11
41. While preparing
financial statements of a banking company
__________ is prepared
for interest expended.
A] Schedule 16 B]
Schedule 12 C] Schedule 13 D] Schedule 15
42. While preparing
financial statements of a banking company
__________ is prepared
for operating expenses.
A] Schedule 16 B] Schedule 12 C] Schedule 13 D] Schedule 15
43. If the standard
assets amount to Rs.2,50,000.Then the
amount of provision will be
A]Rs.500 B]Rs.625
C]Rs.900 D]Rs.525
44. If the profit the
bank during the current year is Rs.5,60,000, the the amount to be transferred
to the statutory reserve as per law will be ________
A]Rs.1,00,000 B]1,40,000
C]2,20,000 D]2,80,000
45.The chairman of the
management body of banking company shall
head the body for a period of ______ years.
A] 5 years b]2
years c]10 years d]4 years
46.The banking company
cannot pay commission exceeding _____ of the paid up value of the shares on
account of the sale of shares.
A]5% B]2.5% C]10%
D]2%
47. Loans that are
provided for a period exceeding 1 year for a maximum period of 20 years are
called ________
A]Medium term loans B]Long term loans
C] Short term loans
D]Bridge loans
48. ___________ refers to
getting the share of ownership of the company in exchange of funding provided in the form of buying shares
of the MSME.
A] Crowd funding B]
peer to peer lending
C] Equity finance D] Debt finance
49. Loans that are provided
for a period not exceeding 1 year are called
___________.
A]Medium term loans
B]Long term loans
C] Short term loans
D]Call loans
50. . While preparing
financial statements of a banking company
__________ is prepared
for cash balances.
A] Schedule 16 B] Schedule 2 C] Schedule 3 D] Schedule 6
CLASS: TYBMS
SUBJECT:INDIRECT TAX
1. IGST means_______________ .
A] Inter- state GST B] Integrated GST C] Import GST D] International GST
2. Which of the following is a
composite supply?
A] Doctor's service with
medicines B] package with fruits and chocolates
C] supply of computer printer
with laptop D] coaching centre with monthly excursions on trekking
3. GST is ____________ .
A] direct tax B] destination based C] foreign tax
D]Origin based
4. ___________ is levied on
Intra State supplies of Goods / Services.
A] Only CGST B] IGST C] Only SGST D] Both CGST &
SGST
5. An Intra State supply
within Union Territory will be subject to levy of ____________
A] IGST B]CGST & SGST C] UTGST & CGST D] Exempt
6. In GST taxable event is
_____________
A] Manufacture B] Sale C]
Barter D]Supply
7. Direct taxes are
____________ in nature
A] Regressive B] progressive
C] Tax on tax D] value added tax
8. Indirect taxes are
____________ in nature
A] Regressive B]
progressive C] Tax on tax D] value added tax
9. Any transfer of the title
in goods is a supply of ____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
10. ____________ specifies the
activities which are treated as supply even if
made without consideration
A] Schedule I of CGST Act B]
Schedule II of CGST Act C] Schedule III of CGST Act
D] Schedule IV of CGST Act
11. Temporary transfer or permitting the use
or enjoyment of any intellectual
property
right shall be
treated as __________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
12. Renting of immovable
property is ___________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
13. Services of funeral,
burial , crematorium or mortuary including transportation of
the deceased shall be treated as ___________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
14. ______________ means a
supply made by a taxable person to a
recipient consisting of two or more
taxable supplies of goods and services or both, or any combination thereof ,
which are naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the
ordinary course of
business, one of which is
principal supply.
A] Composite supply B]
Principal supply C] mixed supply D] inward supply
15. Persons shall be deemed to
be “related persons” if any person directly or indirectly owns,controls or
holds _______ or more of the outstanding voting stock or
shares or both of them.
A]35% B]40% C]50% D]25%
16. Development, design,
programming, customization, adaption , upgradation ,
enhancement , implementation of information
technology software shall be treated as____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
17. he functions performed by
members of Parliament, Members of State Legislature, Members of Gram Panchayat
and other local authorities shall be treated as______________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
18. _____________ means two or
more individual supplies of goods or services, or any combination thereof, made
in conjunction with each other by a taxable person for a single price where such
supply does not constitute a composite supply.
A] Composite supply B]
Principal supply C] mixed supply D] inward supply
19. ________ is levied on
inter state supply of goods.
A]CGST B] SGST
C]IGST D]UTGST
20. Agreeing to an obligation
to refrain from an act , or to tolerate an act or a situation or
to do an act is _________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
21.GST stands for
_______________
A]
Goods and Supply Tax B]
Goods and Sales Tax
C] Goods and Services Tax D] Goods and Simple Tax
22. In India, GST structure is _______ in
nature.
A] Dual B] single C]
triple D] quadruple
23.GST was introduced in India on ?
A]
1-4-2017 B] 01-07-2017 C] 01-03-2017 D] 01-05-2017
24. Supply of following is not liable
to GST
A] Alcoholic liquor for medicinal consumption B] Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
C] Alcoholic
liquor for industrial consumption
D] Alcoholic liquor for animal
consumption
25. HSN code stands for :
A] Harmonised system number B] Home Shopping Network C] Home State Number
D] Harmonised System of Nomenclature
26. The item which will be
taxable under both GST as well Central
Excise Law even after
implementation of the GST Act.
A] motor spirit B] natural gas C] Tobacco and Tobacco
products
D] Alcoholic liquor for human
consumption
27. Which of the following taxes have
not been subsumed under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C] Service tax D] Stamp duty
28. The __________ is the chairperson is
GST council.
A] Union Finance Minister B] State
Finance minister C] President D] Home minister
29. Compensation under Goods And Service Tax Compensation Act,
2017,will be provided to a state for a period of ______ years from the date on which the state brings its SGST
act into force.
A] Three B]Four C]Five
D]Two
30. Gifts not exceeding
__________ in value in a financial year
by an employer to an employee
shall not be treated as supply
of goods or both.
A] 50,000
B]60,000 C]70,000 D]35,000
A]
Schedule I of CGST Act B] Schedule
II of CGST Act C] Schedule III of CGST Act
D]
Schedule IV of CGST Act
32. Services by any court or tribunal established under any law for the time being in
force are
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C]
neither supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
33. Actionable claims ,other than betting,
gambling and lottery shall be treated as ____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
34. Hire purchase of goods is ___________
A] supply of goods B]
supply of service C] neither supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
35. A
laptop is sold with a laptop bag to a customer for a Rs.60,000. The CGST and
SGST laptop is 18% and for laptop bag is
28%. What would be applicable rate of tax
leviable?
A] 46%
B]28% C]18% D]0%
36. GST is a national level tax based on __________
A] last point of tax principle B] first
point of tax principle C] value added principle
D]value
deducted principle
37. Shoppers stop Ltd offers a combo pack
of shirt, wallet and perfume for Rs.2000. The rate of tax for shirt, wallet and perfume are 12%,5% and 10%
respectively. The applicable rate of tax for the combo pack will be _____
A] 10% B]5% C]27% D]12%
38.
The idea of GST in India was first mooted by _____________.
A]Kishan
task force B]Kelkar task force C]Congress task force D]BJP task force
39. Which of the
following taxes have not been subsumed
under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C] Electricity duty d]Central
sales tax
40. Which of the following taxes have not been subsumed under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C]octroi duty d]Profession tax
41.
____________ has been appointed as the Managed service provider of GSTN.
A]
Infosys B]TCS
C]Reliance Ltd D]RBI
42.
GSTN stands for _____________
A]Goods
and service tax number B]Goods and service tax network C]Goods and
service tax note
D]Goods
and service tax nation
43.
The quorum of GST council meeting is _________ of members.
A]20%
B]30% C]50% D]60%
44.
The CGST Act,2017 extends to _______________
A]
Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir
B]Whole
of India
C] Whole
of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir and Union Territories
D] Whole
of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir but including Union Territories
45.
GST council was formed under article __________
A]229B B]279C C]297A D]279A
46.____________
petroleum products have been temporarily been kept out of GST.
A] One
B]Two C] Five D]Four
47. An
easement to occupy land is supply of
___________
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service
C] neither supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
48. Transfer
or disposal of goods forming part of the assets of the business is
________________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
49.
Sale of land is _____________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C]
neither supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
50.
Supply of warehoused goods to any person before clearance for home consumption
is _______________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C]
either supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
neither supply of goods or a supply of service
CLASS: TYBMS- SEM 6 REGULAR
SUB :RETAIL MANAGEMENT
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1.
__________ industry
is one of the fastest-changing and vibrant industries in the world
a) Manufacturing
b) retail
c) wholesale d) textile
2. _______has
been categorized into two segments such as organized retail sector and
unorganized retail sector
Manufacturing b) retail
c) wholesale d) textile
3. ____________
retail sector is holding the larger share of the retail market
a) unorganized b) organized c) wholesale d)
large
4. _______________
involves a direct interface with the customer and the coordination of business
activities from end to end.
a) Manufacturing b) retailing c)
wholesale d) private labels
5. For ____________
retailers a store’s physical layout is an important component in creating a
retail experience that will attract customers
a) non
–store b) store-based c) public
based d) private based
6. Retail
management comprises of____________ of goods and service to the consumer
a)
Marketing
b) convenience c) suitability d) utility
7. ______________
has used 15th August and 26th January as days for giant
sales .
a) Pantaloons
l b) Big Bazaar c) D-mart d) Walmart
8. _________________
stores are having a narrow product line with deep variety, viz. apparel stores,
book stores, etc
a)
Specialty
b) Department c) Convenience d) Non-store
9. ______________
store is a large retail store offering a wide variety of product under one roof
separated by different departments.
a) Specialty b) department
c) convenience d) non-store
10. ______________
store are a relatively small store located near a residential area, open long
hours, seven days a week, and carrying a limited line of high turnover
convenience product at slightly higher prices .
a) Specialty b) department c) convenience d) non-store
11. Retailing
done without conventional store based locations is called as __________
retailing
a) Specialty b) department c) convenience d) non-store
12. _______________
retailing refers to the traditional formats of low cost retailing for example,
local Kirana Shops, general stores, etc.
a) Organized
b)
Unorganized c) Convenience d) multi channel
13. Retailing
as a great enabler for remodelling retail organizations around the customer,
reinforcing brand and driving sustainable, profitable growth.
a) Organized b) Unorganized c) Convenience d) Multi channel
14. Electronic retailing permits _________
a) Touch
and feel factor b) reduction in set up cost c) point of sale terminal d) Visual
merchandising
15. ___________
is the use of electronic and digital equipment
for monitoring retail stores in the form of CCTV equipment.
a) Electronic surveillance b) RFID
c) EDI d) FDI
16. ________________identifies
the items using a tag, which is made up of a microchip with a coiled antenna,
and a reader with an antenna.
a) Electronic
surveillance b)
RFID
c) EDI d) FDI
17. An
_____________ is a system used by retailers to display product price and
information on the shelves.
a)
Electronic surveillance b)
Electronic shelf c) EDI d)
FDI
18. is a
form of foreign investment which comes in form of a physical set up of a plant
in the country where the investor wishes to invest.
a) Fill b) FPI c) FDI d) IIP
19. ___________
is the most preferred mode through which foreign players have entered the
Indian market. It is the easiest route to enter the Indian market
a) Fill b) Franchising
c) FDI d) IIP
20. ___________
placed at the exits, prevent shoplifting .
a) Electronic
article surveillance b) bar code
c) RFID d) stock keeping unit
21. ____________
specialises on procuring eco-friendly, organic, natural and suitable products.
a)
Green
sourcing b) green logistic c) Green
infrastructure d) green technology
22. __________
research provides the correct and latest information for arriving at sound
marketing decisions.
a) Market b) Marketing c) product d) behaviour
23. ______________
psychology is the study of human responses to product and service related
information and experiences .
a) buyer b)
consumer c) retailer d) manufacture
24. A
customer will do mouth publicity and will attract many more towards the product
a) Unsatisfied
b)
Satisfied c) Delighted
d) Frustrated
25. Buying
decision process starts with _________
a) Recognition of needs b) Purchase decision c) evaluation of
alternatives d) post purchase decision
26. Is a
series of parallel vertical lines that can be read by barcode scanners.
a) Merchandise
range b) travel time c) shelf
d) bar code
27. ______________
type of customers typically spent time
in the retail store waiting for a friend or during lunch breaks.
a) Focused
fulfillers b) time
killer’s c) General browsers d) analytical
28. Can be
termed as a value added activity that adds services along with products or
goods and them offer it to personal or family use.
a) Manufacture b)
retailing d) servicing
d) management
29. ___________ management automates and
integrates the planning, execution, assessment and refinement of possibly tens
to hundred of highly segmented campaigns that run monthly, weekly, daily, or
intermittently.
a) Point
of sales b) Frequent shopper program c) Campaign
d) CRM
30. ___________
helps in maintaing the relationship by utilizing IT for periodical e-mailing,
SMS greetings, promotional letters and personal calling.
a)
Point
of sales b) Frequent shopper
program c) Campaign d) CRM
31. ___________ provide the ways to gather lead
contact information, house it, use for communication purpose, and run reports
on the data researchers have collected
a) Point
of sales b) customer analytics c)
campaign d) CRM
32. ____________
management is a tactically driven approach based on customer behaviour.
a)
Point of sales b) Frequent shopper program c) Campaign
d) Customer retention
33. __________ offer various incentives and
rewards to consumers based on cumulative purchase from a given provider, be it
a store a service or a manufacture.
a) Point
of sales b) frequent shopper program c) campaign d) Customer retention
34. __________is
a tool used for measuring improving bond and building loyalty with consumers
a)
CRM b) HRM
c) infrastructure management d) Facility management
35. A
___________ format is the retailers type of retail mix
a) Wholesale b) Retail
c) Manufacture d) Selling
36. A_______
competitive advantage is an advantage over competition that is not easily
copied and thus can be maintained over a long time
a) Sustainable b) Unsustainable
c) measurement d) retention
37. Customer
____________ means that customers are committed to shopping at retailers
locations
a)
Loyalty b)
satisfaction c) Measurement
d) Retention
38. A
opportunity involves directing investments towards existing customers using the
present retailing format
a) Market
segmentation b) market penetration c) Diversification d) market generation
39. A
opportunity involves a new retail format directed towards a market segment that
is not presently being served.
a) Market
segmentation b) market penetration c)
diversification d) market generation
40. A opportunity
employs the existing retailing format in new market segments.
a) Market expansion b) market segmentation c) Diversification
d)
market generation
41. While
developing a retail strategy, ‘income distribution of the population is
identified as _______ environment .
a) Political
b) social c) economic
d) technological
42. A
________ has many retailers completing with each other less than one roof.
a)
Mall b) Freestanding location c) downtown
area d) home based
43. ___________
is a type of retail location is basically any standalone building .
a) Mall b) Home based c)
downtown d) freestanding location
44. __________________
is type of store location may be another premium choice, just like malls.
a) Home
based b) freestanding location c)
Downtown area d) Mall
45. ___________or
stores are an inexpensive option but in such a business, growth may be
restricted
a)
Mall
b) freestanding location c)
downtown area d) Home based
46. Retailers
sell in _________ quantities as they sell directly to final consumers
a)
Small b) large
c) medium d) heavy
47. ____________
can be an individual organisation or another seller
a) Needs b) marketer c) Customer
d) Seller
48. ____________Means
that customers are committed to shopping at retailers location.
a) Penetration b) Rebate
c) Customer loyalty d) Integration
49. A
__________ is refund of part of items purchase price
a) Coupon b) discount
c) offer d) Rebate
50. The
store location should have high ___________
a)
Visibility b) location
c) selection d)
Expansion
CLASS:
T.Y.B.M.S (Marketing) -VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : Media Planning
Management
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1 The word Media came from the latin word ___
1 Middle 2 Media
4Medim 4 Menia
2 A consumer must plan to act the desired
manner is also known as ____
1
Attention 2 Intention 3 Behaviour
3
______ research will tell you about your target audience’s local media habits
1 Qualitative 2 Quantitative 3 Descriptive
4 Cognitive
4
Message weight is expressed in terms of gross impression or ______ rating
points
1
Gross 2 net 3 Operational 4 Operative
5 TRPS
are available in India calculated on the
basis of the ___________ method
1 panel 2 polling
3 opinion 4 mutual agreement
6 ____________
indicate a percentage of target audience
who is exposed at least once in a given period to a particular media vehicle
1 reach 2 frequency
3 market coverage 4 media
planning
7_____advertiseing
is a type of online advertising that comes
in a several forms including banner ads, rich media and more
1 display 2 indoor
3 primarily 4 secondarily
8
Currently adds are regulated by a non statutory body________
1 advertising standards council of India 2 Advertising service council of India
3
Advertising standards corporation in India
4 Standard advertise council
9 The
measures the sales strength of a brand in a particular area
1 Brand Development Index 2 Broad Development Index
3
Brand Developed index 4 Media
developed Index
10
Media strategy is based upon market ________
1 Coverage 2 Persuasion Interaction
4 Control
11
Offering a free gift with purchase is an example of _____
1
Offers 2Persuation 3 Marketing 4 technique
12
_________ is a tool provided to judge which programmes are viewed the most
1
MRP 2TRP 3 KRP 4 PRP
13
Acronym for TRP is ______
1 Tariff Rating Point 2 Total rating point 3 Target rating point 4 Typical rating point
14
__________ is the head of Public relations department .
1
Public society officer 2 Public regional
Officer
3 Public relationship Officer 4 Private regional officer
Unit 2
15______
target are those who have the power to affect the changes the campaign calls
for
1 Primary
2 Secondary 3 Tertiary 4 Superior
16 The
cost factors becomes a matter of the relative cost of the individual media , n
case of newspapers, thus relationship is determined as per ______ per column
1 centimetre 2
word 3 line 4 paragraph
17______ refers to specific methods of media used by
companied to deliver advertising messages to targeted customer
1 Media vehicle 2 Media mix
3 Media Methodology 4 Media
management
18 _____is the
ability to “ aim a radio or TV program or programming at a specific ,limited
audience or consumer market .
1 Narrow casting 2 Media concentration 3 Media mix
4 Media network
19 A
______ is a publication that mostly covers one main topic .
1 Newsletter 2 Newspaper
3 Magazine 4 Brochure
20
Television has been used as an advertising medium nearly since the day the
device was introduced at the New York Worlds Fair in_______
1 1939 2 1940
3 1942 4 1945
21
Cable Television Amendment Bill ______
mandates digitization of TV broadcasts pan India by 2014
1 2011 2 2012
3 2014 4 2015
22
_________ is the use of a remote control
device to avoid commercials by switching to another channel
1 Zapping 2Zipping
3 Forwarding 4 Reversing
23 In
the year 1957 , All India Radio was renamed __________ which is controlled by
the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
1 Akashwani 2 Dhwani
3 Doordarshan 4 Radio Mirchi
24 In _________ advertising messages are
provided either with or without the consent of the mobile owner
1 push 2 pull
3 Broad 4 Media
25
Media in with the advertiser have great number of competitive messages are
termed as
_______.
1 Cluttered 2 messenger
3 sender 4 Clipper
CLASS:
T.Y.B.M.S (Marketing) -VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : International Marketing
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
UNIT1
1 International marketing is dominated by
____countries .
1
poor 2 developing 3 developed 4 rich
2 International marketing ensures ____ utilisation of
resources
1
minimum 2 maximum 3 Normal
4 up to range
3
Direct exporting ensures _____ profit margin
1
low 2 high 3 normal 4 medium
4
Trade barriers are ________ obstacle imposed on imports from other countries
1 Natural 2 artificial
3 political 4 revenue
5
Quota system is a type of __________ barrier
1
tariff 2 non-tariff 3 revenue 4 non- revenue
6 Trading
blocks gives benefit to _____ countries
1 member
2 non-member 3 rich 4 poor
7
franchising is form of ____
1 exporting 2
licensing 3 merger 4 strategic alliance
8 In
merger two companies come together and ______ survives.
1 only one 2 no one
3 both 4 new company formed
9 head
quarters of EU is at ________
1
London 2 Paris 3 Berlin
4 Brussels
10Customer
regulations are ___________ barriers of trade
1
tariff 2 non-tariff 3 political 4 social
11 Regionalism
in trade should be replaced by _________
1 multilateralism 2
free trade 3 trading blocs 4 trade blocs
12Trade
barriers are ______ to the growth of international trade
1
Useful 2 harmful 3 supportive 4 meaningless
13
Contract manufacturing is type of _______
1 Outsourcing 2 made to order agreement 3assembling activity 4 buildin
14________
is horizontal expansion of firm
1 Merger 2 Diversification 3 Combination
4 Systematic
UNIT 2
15
International economic environment is the result of economic factors operating
at the ____ level.
1
local 2 national 3 international
4 business
16 International marketing environment is _____ in character
1
stable 2static 3 fluid 4 fluid and flexible
17 IFC
is one _______ of world bank
1
sister institution 2 affiliate
3 financial agency 4 advisory
18 One
objective of IMF is to promote_____
1 exchange rate stability 2 Industrial
growth 3Infrastructure development 4 stable interest rate
19 EU
is best example of __________
1 economic union 2 free trade rate 3 customs union 4 common market
20
Democracy is regarded as the ____political system
1 worse 2 best 3 most ineffective 4 corrupt
21
Tradition , customs and culture are used
as based for ___ law.
1 Civil
2 theocratic 3 common 4 criminal
22Dumping
is a _______ practice for entry in foreign markets
1
fair 2 unfair 3 easy 4 freely allowed
23
Cultural environment is _______
1 Static
2 flexible 3 stable
4 dynamic
24
International marketing research deals with _________ markets
1
domestic 2 foreign 3 local 4 retail
25 In
international marketing research , the use of _______should be made liberally.
1
primary 2 secondary data 3
unpublished data 4 published data
.
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