FYBBI - SEM II

MCQ – (Multiple Choice Questions)

SAMPLE MCQ

AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI SYLLABUS

Will be helpful to regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V class of students.

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FY BBI - SEM II – REGULAR –

Effective Communication

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1. Communication is a _________

a. One way process

b. two way process

c. three way process

d. four way process

2. What are not the important considerations of the effective presentations

a. Content

b. Structure

c. human element

d. Decorations

3. A Group discussion is the tool used by B Schools, institutions and companies to assess the _______ of the person

a. Personality

b. Money status

c. Ethics

d. Morals

4. The content in the presentation must be _____ and relevant to the listeners

a. Disturbing

b. Argumentative

c. Authentic

d. Baseless

5. Grapevine communication is associated with _____communication.

a. Formal

b. Informal

c. Horizontal

d. Vertical

6. A Table is a container that holds information about the _____ items

a. Like

b. Unlike

c. Different

d. Not related

7. ___________ is gaining increasing popularity because of its simplicity, reliability and minimal time factor

a. Leadership Co-ordination

b. Grapevine communication

c. Group Discussions

d. Interview

8. A presenatation is a form of oral communication in which a person shares factual information with an audience that is

a. Small

b. Large

c. Specific

d. mixed

9. What are not the Ingredients of Group discussion

a. Planning

b. Proper no of participants

c. Proper leadership

d. Initiating fights

10. Receiving, Interpreting, Remembering, Evaluating and Responding are the elements in the process of _____

a. Writing

b. Speaking

c. Listening

d. Arguing

11. A GD is highly structured because:

a. It is coordinated by a moderator

b. It measures group communication skills

c. Members have to listen to the views of others

d. The topic, time and number of participants are all decided in advance

12. Actual instructions in flowcharting are represented in __________

a. Circles

b. Boxes

c. Arrows

d. Lines

13. Which of these qualities are important in a group discussion?

a. Emotional stability

b. Hostility

c. Ignorance

d. Aggressiveness

14. The process of drawing a flowchart for an algorithm is called __________

a. Performance

b. Evaluation

c. Algorithmic Representation

d. Flowcharting

15. When is the worst time to break into a discussion?

a. When everyone is silent

b. When one person is talking

c. When two or three people are talking simultaneously

d. When there is less time left.

16. Which of the following is not an advantage of a flowchart?

a. Better communication

b. Efficient coding

c. Systematic testing

d. Improper documentation

17. A group discussion must advance _____

a. Truth

b. Dishonesty

c. Personal glory

d. Arguments

18. The following are uses of the bar graphs except

a. Shows how parts of a whole are distributed

b. Indicates the composition of several items over time

c. Shows changes in one item over time

d. Compare the size of several items at a time

19. The following can cause communication barriers except

a. Emotional distractions

b. Ethical communication

c. Restrictive environment

d. Too many messages

20. A moderator is a monitor of a group discussion.

a. True

b. False

21. A _______ presentation consists of slideshow

a. Bar graphical

b. Line graphical

c. Power point

d. Pie graphical

22. In a group discussion, we should be _____

a. Assertive

b. Dominating

c. Subjective

d. Ignorant

23. OHP stands for _____

a. Over head Projector

b. Over head Presentation

c. Over head power point

d. Over head PPT

24. Which of these factors do not enhance listening skills?

a. Attention

b. Clear perception

c. Fakeness

d. Frankness

25. A job interview is a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer.

a. True

b. False

26. Transparencies must be covered with ____ paper

a. Opaque

b. Transparent

c. Gelatine

d. Craft paper

27. Which of these is not a type of interview?

a. Screening interview

b. Stress interview

c. Music interview

d. Lunch interview

28. Verbal skills uses _____ and _______

a. Body language and pictures

b. Colours and diagrams

c. Intention and assessments

d. Right words and lucid delivery

29. Power point provides information in the form of ______

a. Pie charts

b. Flowcharts

c. Slides

d. Pictorial representations

30. Which kind of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job applicant is evaluated?

a. Stress interview

b. Screening interview

c. Group interview

d. Behavioural interview

31. In which of these, more than one candidate is interviewed?

a. The behavioural interview

b. The stress interview

c. The group interview

d. The audition

32. Meetings have a _______ agenda

a. Liquid

b. Fixed

c. Indefinite

d. Decided on spot

33. ______ questions assess the candidate’s response to a sensitive issue.

a. Closed

b. Probing

c. Loaded

d. Leading

34. _______ meetings are conducted once in a year

a. Annual general meetings

b. Executive meetings

c. Committee meetings

d. Special meetings

35. Which of these should be avoided in an interview?

a. Attentiveness

b. Accuracy

c. Negative attitudes

d. Clarity

36. Which of these is not a characteristic of a group personality?

a. Spirit of conformity

b. Respect for group values

c. Collective power

d. Disrespect

37. Paperwork is the responsibility of the ____

a. Chairman

b. Secretary

c. Treasurer

d. Member

38. Which of these is the first ingredient in a group discussion?

a. Planning

b. Purpose

c. Informality

d. Leadership

39. An interview involves ________ communication

a. Face to face

b. Online

c. Telephonic

d. Email

40. The candidate answering the question during the Interview is known as the _____

a. Interviewer

b. Communicator

c. Interviewee

d. Leader

41. An _____ interview is a kind of grievance interview

a. Promotion

b. Exit

c. Problem

d. Fresh.

42. _________ interview is conducted to evaluate the acheivements of subordinates

a. Promotion

b. Exit

c. Assessment

d. Problem

43. A __________ is communication between multiple people

a. Conversation

b. Dailogue

c. Speech

d. Elution

44. Which of the following is not a meeting

a. General members meeting

b. Special meeting

c. Peer meeting

d. Executive meeting

45. Which of the following is not an advantage of the committee meeting?

a. Instant Feedback to ideas presented.

b. Avoidance of responsibility

c. Different perceptions of the problems made available

d. Feeling of involvement and participation

46. The term Group Dynamics refers to processes, performance and alterations which happen _______ the group

a. Outside

b. Inside

c. Externally

d. With the consent

47. Successful group dynamics hinges on connectedness

a. True

b. False

c. Partly True

d. Partly False

48. A _____ is written intimation of the date, time, place and business to be transacted at a meeting.

a. Notice

b. Agenda

c. Agreement

d. Resolution

49. The Agenda of a meeting is a ________ of various items of business to be discussed at a meeting.

a. Items of business

b. Listed programme

c. Collection

d. Distribution

50. _______ aids supplement presenations to increase clarity

a. Graphic

b. Text

c. Brief summary

d. pointer

Class- F.Y.B.B.I

Subject- Buisness Law

MCQ (50 questions)

1. An Indemnity Can?

[a] Expressed

[b] Implied

[c] can be expressed or implied

[d] invalid

2. In Contract of Indemnity there are ________parties.

[a] two

[b] Three

[c] Four

[d] Five

3 . Which of the following is the right of indemnity holder.

[a] All Sums

[b] All Costs

[c] All Damages

[d] No costs

4.The Person to Whom Guarantee given is Called as __________

[a] Surety

[b] Principal debtor

[c] Creditor

[d] Co-surety

5. A Contract of gurantee,which contemplates Three contracts at the time is called as ?

[a] Valid Agreement

[b] Tripartite Agreement

[c] Void Agreement

[d] In-valid agreement

6. A Contract of gurantee discharge liability of whom in case of his default ?

[a] First Person

[b] Third Person

[c] Fourth Person

[d] No any such person

7. Operation of law is one of essential of contract of Indemnity?

[a] Yes

[b] No

[c] Neither of above

8. The person who promises to more good the loss is called as?

[a] Indemnity holder

[b] Bailor

[c] Indemnifier

[d]bailee

9. A Contact by which one party promises to Save other from loss caused to him by conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person name as ?

[a] Contract of Bailment

[b] Contract of gurantee

[c] Contract of Indemnity

[d] Contract of surety

10. In Specific gurantee mode of transaction is used ?

[a] Series of Transaction

[b] Single Transaction

[c] Double transaction

[d] No such mode exist

11. The Contract Where takes place of deliver of goods .Such contracts is called?

[a] Contract of gurantee

[b] Contract of indemnity

[c] Contract of Bailment

[d] Contract of agency

12. If goods are given by mistake there is no contract of Bailment.

[a] Yes

[b] No

[c] Partly true

[d] Partly false

13. Contract of Bailment , spears about which goods.

[a] Moveable

[b] Immoveable

[c] perishable

[d] Non-perishable

14. Contract of bailment involves temporary change with regard to?

[a] Possession

[b] Ownership

[c] service

[d] contract itself

15. Whose duty is it not to mix goods ?

[a] Bailor

[b] Bailee

[c] surety

[d] Bailor and bailee both

16. Bailment of goods for security of payment is called as

[a] pledge

[b] guarantee

[c] Mortgage

[d] Lease

17. To return the increase in goods

[a] duty of bailor

[b] Duty of bailee

[c] Duty of third party

[d] Duty of both bailor and bailee

18. Whose duty is it to disclose the faults in the good bailed ?

[a] bailee

[b] Promiser

[c] Bailor

[d] third party

19. If the bailee with the consent of bailor mixes the goods with that of bailor has right to claim ?

[a] un-equal share in goods mixed

[b] Proportionate share in goods mixed

[c] No share

[d] Maximum share

20. Types of bailment under the Indian contract act

[a] three

[b] Four

[c] Two

[d] One

21. Which one of the following is correct ?

[a] Indian contract act 1882

[b] Indian contract act 1972

[c] Indian contract act 1872

[d] Indian contract act 1888

22. The law of contract is nothing but

[a] A child of commercial dealing

[b] A child of religion

[c] A child of day day politics

[d] A child of economics

23. The term contract is define under which section in Indian contract act ?

[a] section 2 (b)

[b] Section 2 (p)

[c] Section 2 (e)

[d] Section 2 (h)

24. The Indian contract act is divided into how many parts ?

[a] Four parts

[b] Seven parts

[c] Two parts

[d] Ten parts

25. The Indian Contract Act ,1872 extends to

[a] Whole of India

[b] North India only

[c] South India only

[d] Whole of India including jammu and kashmir

26. To form a valid contract , there should be atleast ?

[a] Two parties

[b] Three parties

[c] Four parties

[d] Five parties

27. Section one to section 75 are applicable to

[a] Special contract

[b] Transfer of property

[c] Partnership Act

[d] General principal of contract

28. Law of contract lays down the rules relating to formation of ?

[a] Sales

[b] Contract

[c] Partnership Act

[d] Information Technology act

29. For a contract consent is

[a] Not essential

[b] Very essential

[c] May or may not be essential

[d] Essential

30. Contractual rights and duties are created by ?

[a] state

[b] Parties

[c] Statute

[d] Custom or usage

31. Every contract is an agreement ,but every agreement is not a contract . This statement is

[a] Wrong

[b] Correct

[c] Correct ,subject to certain exceptions

[d] Partially correct

32. As per sec 2 (e) of Indian contract Act ,

Every promise and every set of promise forming consideration for each other is a/an

[a] Contract

[b] Agreement

[c] Offer

[d] Acceptance

33. In consideration the act must be done at the desire of

[a] Bailee

[b] Third party

[c] Neither of them

[d] Promisor

34. The promise to be performed on a future date is called as ?

[a] Past consideration

[b] Illusory consideration

[c] Future consideration

[d] Present consideration

35. Consideration not permitted by law is called as ?

[a] social consideration

[b] Third party consideration

[c] Lawful consideration

[d] Unlawful consideration

36. Over a cup of coffee in a restaurant x invites y to dinner at his house on Sunday y hires a taxi and reaches x house at appointed time but x fails to perform his promise can y recover any damages from x ?

[a] Yes,as y has suffered

[b] No, as the intention was not to create legal relation

[c] Because y is minor

[d] Any promise does not exist

37. Which of following is a contract ?

[a] A engages B for a certain work any promises to pay such remuneration as shall be fixed . B does the work

[b] A promise to marry B

[c] A takes a seat in public vehicle

[d] A invites B to card party B accepts the invitation

38. Which one of the following will constitute a valid acceptance?

[a] as enquiry as to the fitness of the subject matter of contract

[b] A provisional acceptance

[c] Acceptance of offer

[d] A conditional acceptance

39. Goods displayed in a shop window with a price label will amount to

[a] offer

[b] Acceptance of offer

[c] Invitation of offer

[d] Counter offer

40. Misstatement of facts made by one party to other party with intention to deceive the other party to the contract

[a] This is called coercion

[b] This is called mistake

[c] This is called undue influence

[d] This is called fraud

41. Mistakes of law and mistake of fact are as

[a] Advantages of mistake

[b] Disadvantages of mistakes

[c] Features of mistake

[d] Classification of mistake

42. An agreement is

[a] Offer

[b] Offer acceptance

[c] Offer +Acceptance +Consideration

[d] Contract

43. A minor is a person below

[a] 14 years

[b] 16 years

[c] 18 years

[d] 22 years

44. The person who makes offer is known as

[a] Offeror

[b] Bailor

[c] Offeree

[d] Bailee

45. The offer made to specific person as

[a] Counter offer

[b] Specific offer

[c] Standing offer

[d] General offer

46. Communication in the offer has to be communicated to

[a] Third party

[b] Offeree

[c] Bailor

[d] Bailee

47. Rejecting an offer brings offer

[a] To start offer

[b] To communicate offer

[c] To end offer

[d] To re-accept offer

48. A offering to pay rs.2,00,000 to anyone who gives information about his missing daughter

[a] This is specific offer

[b] Counter offer

[c] General offer

[d] Standing offer

49. “A” offers to sell “B” his acer laptop at Rs.20,000 . “B” immediately hands out a cheque for amount . here “B” has accepted it impliedely without speaking

[a] This is called as contract

[b] This is called as offer

[c] This is called as agreement

[d] This is called as acceptance

50. Consideration must have some value

[a] True

[b] False

[c] Not very correct

[d] Not essential

CLASS:F.Y.B.B.I IISEM REGULAR

SUB:FIANACIAL ACCOUNTING-II

MCQ(50 Questions)

1.Goowill is________

a.an Intangible asset( ) b.a fixed asset() c.realisable() d.All of the above().

2.Goodwill is valued when

a.amalgamation takes place() b.one company takes over another co,() c.a partner is admitted() d.all of the above()

3.Normal profit is

a.average profit earned() b.profit earned by similar co.in the same()

industry c.a and b() d.actual profit()

4.Normal rate of return depends on

a.Rate of interest() b.Rate of Risk()

c.both a & b() d.Discount()

5.Super profit is

a.excess of average profit over normal profit()

b.average profit earned by similar companies.()

c.extra profit earned() d.none of the above()

6.Any non trading income included in the profit should be

a.Eliminated() b.added() c.ignored() d.none of the above()

7.Undercapitlaisation of super profit method, Goodwill is equal to

a.Captialised Value of super profit at NRR()

b.Capitalised value of maintained profit()

c.a and b()

d.Total profit()

8.Capital employed at the end of the year is Rs.420000,Profit earned Rs.40000.Average capital employed is

a.Rs.420000() b.Rs.400000() c.Rs.440000() d.Rs.460000()

9.Rate of Interest is 11% and the rate of risk is 9%.The normal rate of return is

a.11% () b.9% () c.20% () d.2%()

10.Capital employed at the beginning of the year is Rs.520000 and the profit earned during the year is Rs.60000.Average employed during the year is

a.Rs.550000() b.520000 () c.Rs.580000() d.Rs.460000()

11.Shares are to be valued on

a.Mergers() b.Sale of shares() c.Gift tax() d.all of the above()

12.Yield value depends on____

a.Future maintainable profit() b.Paid up equity capital()

c.Normal rate of return() d.all of the above()

13.Value of partly paid equity Share is equal to

a.Value of fully paid share-Calls unpaid per share()

b.Calls in arrears per share()

c.Paid up value per share()

d.uncalled()

14.While deciding net asset value fictitious assets

a.Should be considered() b.Should not be considered()

c.added to total assets() d.deducted from profit()

15.F.M.P for yield valuation is

a.Futrure Profit() b.Profit that would be available to equity shareholder() c.Past profit() d.non profit()

16.Average capital employed Rs.1400000

Net profit 2011 250000

2012 100000(Loss)

2013 450000

Goodwill at 3 years purchase of super profit will be:

a.Rs180000 () b.150000() c.120000() d.90000()

17.The company earns a net profit of Rs.24000 with a capital of Rs.120000,The NRR is 10% .Under capitalization of super profit, Goodwill will be

a.Rs.120000() b.Rs.70000() c.Rs.12000()d.24000()

18.Value is based on the assumption that

a.the company is going concern() b.the company will be liquidated()

c.the company is sick () d.Non profitable()

19.Goodwill is paid for obtaining________

a.future benefit() b.Present benefit()

c.Past benefit() d.no benefit()

19.While calculating capital employed____

a.Tangible trading assets should be considered()

b.Intangible assets should be considered()

c.Fictitious Assets should be considered()

d.Lossess()

20.Quoted shares are those shares which are

a.Listed on the stock exchange() b.Quoted daily()

c.Quoted by seller() d.Quoted by buyer()

21.Calculate expected Rate of return

Net profit after Taxation 340000

Less:Preference dividend 14% 70000

Net Profit to Equity shareholder 270000

Equity share capital Rs.10,00,000

a.27%() b.30%() c.35%() d.22%()

22.Calculate Yield Value:

Expected Rate of Return 27%

N.R.R 20

a.Rs.135() b.Rs.140() c.Rs.155() d.Rs.165()

23.Calucalate Intrinsic value:

Net Assets RS.990000

No.Equity shares 100000

a.Rs.9.90() b.Rs.10.00() c.RS.11() d.Rs.13()

24.Caluclate value per share

Expected Rate of Dividend 25%

Normal Rate of Retrun 10%

a.Rs.25() b.Rs.30() c.Rs.35() d.Rs.40()

25.Calculate the Net Asset Value

Amount available to equity shareholder Rs.222000

No. of Equity shares 7500

a.Rs.29.6() b.Rs.30.6() c.Rs.35.6() d.Rs.45()

26.The redemption of preference shares is governed by section ______of the Company Act.

a.77() b.78() c.75() d.55()

27.Capital Redemption reserve is to be created to the extent redemption is out of____

a.Bank account() b.new issue of share()

c.capital profits() d.divisible profits()

28.Capital redemption reserve can be utilized for______

a.Paying dividend() b.issue of bonus shares()

c.set off against Loss() d.write off fictitious balance()

29.Preference share can be redeemed by________

a.issue of preference shares() b.transfer of investment()

c.sale of fixed assets() d.Set off deferred revenue expenditure()

30.Divisible Profit means________

a.Profit disclosed by Profit and Loss Account()

b.Profit disclosed by Profit and Loss account Less Dividend tax()

c.Profit available for distribution as dividend()

d.retained earnings()

31.A company cannot issue redeemable preference shares for a period exceeding________

a.5years() b.7years() c.20years() d.25years()

32.Profit on forfeiture of redeemable preference shares is credited to___ a.Capital reserve() b.Capital Redemption reserve()

c.Profit and Loss a/c() d.General reserve()

33.A company cannot issue_____

a.Redeemable cumulative preference shares()

b.Redeemable non-cummulative preference shares()

c.Irredeemable Preference shares()

d.Irredeemable Preference shares()

34.A company can issue redeemable preference shares____

a.At par() b.At discount () c.At premium() d.All of these().

35.The Preference shares of Rs.100 each eligible for redemption are_____

a.Shares on which Rs.40 is paid is paid and application money()

b.Shares on which application money Rs.40 and allotment money Rs.30 is paid()

c.Shares on which application and allotment money of Rs.100 has been paid()

d.All of the above()

36.Premium on redemption of preference shares should be adjusted out of________

a.Divisible Profit only() b.Captial profit only()

c.Securities premium only() d.Profits of the company()

37.Vibha Ltd had 1800010% preference shares of Rs.10each fully paid up.The company decided to redeem the preference shares at par by issue of sufficient number of equity shares of Rs.10 each fully paid at a discount of 10%.The number of equity shares issued should be____

a.18000() b.20000() c.22000() d.23000()

38.X Ltd issued 1000 equity shares of Rs.100 each at discount of 10%.The proceeds will be______

a.Rs.100000() b.Rs.90000() c.Rs.110000() d.Rs.150000()

39.X.Ltd issued 1000 equity shares of Rs.100 each at par.The proceeds will be________

a.Rs.100000() b.Rs.150000() c.Rs.170000() d.RS.20000()

40.The process of refund of preference share capital is known as___________a.repayment() b.redemption() c.issue() d.surrender()

41.Dividend is calculate on preference share capital on____

a.Face value() b.paid up value() c.market value() d.Cost()

42.After redemption of preference shares,bonus issue is made to_

a.old equity shareholders() b.new equity shares()

c.both a &b() d.preference shares()

43.Fresh issue of shares is made to provide funds for payment to__

a.Equity shareholders() b.preference shareholders()

c.Creditors() d.Debentures()

44.The term redemption is specified at time______

a.issue of shares() b.allotment of shares()

c.receipt of application for shares() d.re-issue of share()

45.As per section 78 of the companies Act, Securities premium. premium cannot be used for_______

a.issue of fully paid bonus shares()

b.writing off losses of the company()

c.writing off preliminary expenses()

d.writing off commission or discount on issue of shares()

46.The following profit does not form part of divisible profits___

a.workmen compensation fund() b.Workmen Accident fund()

c.Revalutaion Reserve() d.Creditors()

47.The preference shares which carry the right of participating is surplus is called____

a.Participating preference shares() b.Convertible preference shares()

c.cummulative preference shares() d.cash()

48.Captial Redemption Reserve is shown in the Balance sheet under________a.Share capital() b.Secured Loan()

c.Unsecured Loan() d.Reserves and Surplus()

49.Securities Premium may be used for_______

a.Payment to dividend() b.issue of fully paid bonus shares()

c.issue of right shares() d.declaration of bonus()

50.Calls in arrears is_________

a.Deducted from called up capital() b.added to called up capital()

c.Deducted from paid up capital() d.Deducted from subscripted capital()

CLASS FYBBI SEMESTER REGULAR

SUBJECT: QUANTITATIVE MATHOD l

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1.Statement made about a population for testing purposes called?

Statistic (b) hypothesis (c) level of significance (d) testing statistic

2.If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called

(a) null hypothesis (b) statical hypothesis (c) simple hypothesis (d) composite hypothesis

3.A statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a sample is called

(a) null hypothesis (b) statistical hypothesis (c) simple hypothesis (d) composite hypothesis

4.A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called I

(a) null hypothesis (b) Statistical hypothesis (c) simple hypothesis (d) composite hypothesis

5.If the null hypothesis is falls then which of the following is accepted

(a) null hypothesis (b) positive hypothesis (c) negative hypothesis (d) alternative hypothesis

6. The rejection probability of null hypothesis then it is true is called as

(a) Level of confidence (b) level of significance (c) level of margin (d) leloveof rejection

7.The point where then another hypothesis gets rejected is called as

(a) significant value (b) rejection value(c) acceptance value(d) critical value

8 If the critical reason is evenly distributed then the test is referred as

(a) Two tailed( b)one tailed Three tailed(c) zero tailed

9.The type of test is defined by which of the following

(a) Null hypothesis (b) simple hypothesis(c) alternative hypothesis(d) composite hypothesis

10 Which of the following is define as the rule or formula to test a null hypothesis

(a) test Statistic (b) population statistics (c) variance statistic (d)null statistic

11.Consider a hypothesis Ho where u = 5 against H1 where u >5 . the test is?

(a) Right tailed (b) left tailed (c) center tailed (d) cross tailed

12.Consider a hypothesis where Ho where u°=23 against H1 where u1<23. the taste is

(a) Right tailed (b)Left tailed (c) center tailed (d) Cross tailed

13. Alternative hypothesis is also called as

(a) composite hypothesis (b)research hypothesis (c)simple hypothesis (d) null hypothesis

16 There are….. types of hypothesis

(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3

17.If A and B are symmetric matrices of the same order ,then

(a) AB is a symmetric matrix

(b) A-Bis askew- symmetric matrix

(C) AB+ BA is a symmetric

18. A= [5 6 8 9] is

(a) Row matrix (b) column matrix

19.A table used to keep track of the calculations made at each iteration of the simplex procedure and to provide basis for tableau revision .

(a) surplus variable (b) basic variable

20.A variable added to the left hand side of a less than or equal to constriant to convert the constraints into an equality is called ………..

(a) Slack variable (b) surplus variable (c) basic variable (d) artificial variable

21. The intersecting elements of key row and key column is known as the ………….

(a) key row (b)key number (c) key column (d) slack

22. Any basis feasible solution which optimizes the objective function of a linear programming problem is called an optimal solution of a LLP .

(a) Cj row (b) optimal solution (c) Zj row (d) key row

23.The first row Cj is known as …….

(a) simplex row (b) objectives row (c) Basic row (d) Z row

24.[2 5 6 1 ]order of these matrix (a) 2×1 (b) 2× 3 (c) 1×4 (d) 6×3

25. Two matrices can be added if they are of the ……..order

(a) 2×3(b) 4×3 (c) same (d) 6×5

26.Only….... matrices have determinants.

(a) square (b) simple (c) unit matrix (d) zero matrix

27. If A is a square matrix ,then A- A' is a

(a) diagonal matrix (b) skew- symmetric matrix (c) symmetric matrix (d) rectangular matrix

28.If A= [2 6 8 5] B= [6 4 3 9] then A+B =

(a) [8 10 12 6] (b) [8 10 11 14]

29.Mathematical model of linear programming is important because (a) it helps in convering the verbal description and numerical data into mathematical expression

(b)Decision makers prefer to work with formal models

(d) It enables the use algebraic techniques

30.A feasible solution of LPP

(a) Must satisfy all the constraints simultaneously

(b) Need not satisfy all the constraints ,only some of them

(d) must not satisfy all the constraints

31. Maximization of objectives function in LPP means

(a)value occurs at allowable set decision

(b) highest value is chosen among allowable decision

32.The order of matrix…[5]

(a) (1×1) (b) ( 2×1) (c) (3×1) (d) 1×2

33.In LPP ….

(a) objectives function is linear

(b) constraints are linear

(c) both objectives function and constraints are linear

(d) slack solution

34.The set of decision variable which satisfies all the constraints of the LPP is called as

(a) solution (b) basic solution (c) feasible solution (d) convex region

35.constraints means …

(a) limitations are expressed in mathematical equalities (or inequalities )

(b) assumption (c) goal is to be achieved (d) feasible solution

36.The area of feasible region for the following constraints 3y+x>3, x>0, y>0 will be

(a) Bounded (b) unbounded (c) convex (d) concave

37.In xy – plane ,xand y value are in first quadrant is always…….

(a) Both are positive(b) both are negative (c) x is positive and y is negative (d) x is negative and y is positive

38.A type 1 error occurs when we

(a) reject a false hypothesi

(b) reject are true null hypothesis

(d) don't reject a true null hypothesis

39.All type 2 error occurs when we

(a) reject a false null hypothesis

(b) Reject a true null hypothesis

(d) don’t reject a true null hypothesis

40.A…….. is I statement supposed to be true till it is provided false

(a)Hypothesis(b) critical region(c)Lavel of significance

41.Which of the following P values will lead us to reject the null hypothesis if the significance level of the test is 5%?

(a) 0.15 (b) 0.10 (c) 0.06 (d) 0.025

42. Suppose that we reject null hypothesis at 5% significances of significance for which of the following lavels of significance do we also reject the null hypothesis?

(a)6% (b) 2.5%(c) 4% (d)3%

43.In hypothesis testing what level of significance would be most appropriate to choose if you knew that making a type 1 error would be more costly then making a type 2 error

(a) 0.005 (b) 0.025 (c) 0.050 (d) 0.025

44.The new value of the key row (second row ) =….

(a) old value/ key elements (b) key elements/ row

45 Z- Statistics defined as

(a)Z= x-E(x) /S.E (X)~N

(b) Z= S.E (X)/ X-E

(c) Z= E(X)- X/N

(d) Z= N/0

46……..are the restrictions or a limitations on the use of limited resources.they are expressed as linear equality or inequalities in decision variable.

(a) Objectives Function

(b) Non negativity

(c) Constraints

(d) Variable

47.A diagonal matrix is said to be …….. matrix ,if it diagonal elements are equal.

(a) square matrix (b) unit matrix

48.A diagonal matrix in which diagonal elements are 1 and rest are zero is called………….matrix

(a) square matrix

(b) null matrix

(C) unit matrix (d) scalar matrix

49.A= [6 8 4 2 7 ] then order of the matrix is

(a) 1×5 (b) 3×5 (c) 5× 1 (d) 2× 5

50.A …….is a rectangular ordered arrangements of number or functions

(a) square (b) rectangular (c) matrix

(d) row

CLASS: F.Y.BBI

SUB:ORGANISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1)OB is essentially an inter disciplinary approach to study human behaviour at _______

a) Field b) Home c) Work d) Society

2)__________ is a small group of volunteered employees from same work area, doing

similar work meet regularly to discuss work related problems.

a) PQM b) TQM c) MBO d) Quality circle

3)The study of people in relation to social environment or culture is called _________.

a) Sociology b) Anthropology c) Psychology d) Zoology

4)Two factor theory of motivation is propounded by _________.

a) Herzberg b) Victor vroom c) Zohar d) Maslow

5)_________attempts to study and understand individual behaviour.

a) Anthropology b) Sociology c) Psychology d) Social Psychology

6)_________is the belief that one’s effort will result in performance.

a) Promotion b) Demotivation c) Expectancy d) Motivation

7) The leadership is the heart of __________model.

a) Autocratic b) Supportive c) Achievement d) Social

8) ERG was invented by ___________.

a) Clayton Alderfer b) David McGregor c) Maslow d) Herzberg

9) ____________model aims at satisfying the higher-level needs of

the employees.

a) Promotion b) Custodian c) Autocratic d) Collegial

10)_________ motivation is a drive that people have to succeed and attempt

goals.

a) Affiliation b) Collegial c) Power d) Achievement

11) The base of autocratic model is________.

a) Power b) Economic resources c) Support d) Leadership

12)__________ propounded theory X and theory Y of motivation.

a) Victor vroom b) McGregor c) Porter Lawler d) Zohar

13) In_____________ model performance of employees is minimal.

a) Leadership b) Custodial c) Collegial d) Autocratic

14) Partnership is the heart of __________model.

a) Supportive b) Affiliation c) Custodial d) Collegial

15) Collegial model focuses on ___________.

a) Individual growth b) Team work c) Social Support d) Divide and rule

16) Spiritual intelligence is popularized by ________.

a) Goleman b) Herzberg c) Zohar d) Victor vroom

17)____________self represent things that others know about us,

but we are unaware of it.

a) Known b) Unknown c) Open d) Blind

18)__________ is an individual belief that he is capable of doing

a task.

a) Dedication b) Leadership c) soft skill d) Self- efficacy

19)___________ self contains expects of our self, that we know

and others do now know.

a) Unknown b) Open c) Hidden d) Blind

20) Understanding ideas and world meaning ________ability.

a) Intelligence b) Memory c) Verbal comprehension d) Numerical

21)________ is defined as a set of expected behaviour patterns

attributed to someone occupying a given position in an organization.

a) Role b) Status c) Informal d) Formal

22) To_________ goes the credit of developing the first test of intelligence.

a) Goleman b) Maslow c) Binet d) Zohar

23) __________ group is designated work group defined by an organization

structure.

a) Status b) Formal c) Informal d) Role

24) Ability to drive a rule from given information is ___________ability.

a) Spatial b) Technical c) Memory d) Reasoning

25)__________ teams are the ones that use computer technology to tie together,

physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal.

a) Cross functional b) Virtual c) Problem solving d) Spatial

26)_________skills include a wide range of traits and qualities.

a) Organisational b) Interpersonal c) Soft d) Technical

27) Expectable standards of behaviour within a group that are shared by group

members are called as_________

a) Status b) Role c) Identity d) Norms

28) ___________ is a group composed of individuals who report directly to a

given manager.

a) Formal b) Informal b) Command d) Task

29) A group that is neither formally structure nor organizationally determine

is called as____________.

a) Formal b) Informal c) Social d) Task

30) A _________ group is created by management to accomplish certain

organizational task.

a) Command b) Formal c) Task d) Social

31) Organizational behaviour studies ___________behaviour.

a) Human b) Nature c) Social d) Individual

32) The autocratic model gives importance to__________.

a) Position b) People c) Power d) Payment

33) The term motivation has been derived from the word__________.

a) Motion b) Motive c) Maintain d) Manage

34) _____________ propounded theory of human needs.

a) Mc Gregor b) William Ouchi c)Zohar d) Abraham Maslaw

35) In ____________ Douglas McGregor first presented theory X and

Theory Y.

a) 1960 b) 1959 c) 1954 d)1956

36) Theory X assumes that people are __________.

a) Not creative b) Creative c) Motivated d) Positive

37) Theory Z was develop by ________.

a) Zohar b) Dr William Ouchi c) Maslow d) W.J.Ron

38) Classical approach was developed by___________.

a) F.W.Taylor b) Zohar c) Herzberg d) Maslow

39) Employees expect___________ for there good performance.

a) Status b) Job c) Reward d) Position

40) ___________ is a process of making jobs more interesting.

a) Job commission b) Job enrichment c) Job Satisfaction d) Job enlargement

41) IQ is a score that indicates and _________ level of intelligence.

a) Material b) Individual c) Job d) Method

42) Robert Sternberg proposed the intelligence theory of __________.

a) Y theory b) Triarchy c) Z Theory d) Hierarchy

43) In 1995 Daniel Goleman popularised his book ____________.

a) emotional intelligence b) Social Welfare c) Social intelligence d) Self confidence

44) Emotional intelligent persons perform better under ________task.

a) Difficult b) Regular c) Easy d) Confusing

45) A team is a ___________ number of people.

a) Small b) Short c) Large d) Medium

46) ___________ is the stage when members are just coming together for the first

time.

a) Judging b) Norming c) Forming d) Performing

47)___________ is a person who takes charge of or guides a performance or activity.

a) Leader b) Superior c) Team d) Staff

48) Multi cultural Skills include culture__________ of employees in an organization.

a) Salary b) Spirit c) Unity d) Empathy

49) Joseph luft has develop a model of _____________.

a) SMART b) Interpersonal skills c) Johari window d) EQ

50) _____________ is the process of deliberately revealing information about

one self

a) IQ b) EQ c) Self disclosure d) Multi cultural Skills

CLASS: F.Y.BBI

SUB:PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICES OF BANKING AND INSURANCE

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1) Banking regulation act, ____________.

a)1949 b)1950 c)1951 d)1956

2)__________provides license for all banks by the Reserve Bank of India.

a) Section 23 b) Section 22 c) section 39 d) section 35

3)____________institutions provide wide range of fix based and non fix

Based assistance to the business unit.

a) Financial institutions b) Co-operative Societies c) Banking Sector d) Non-Banking finance Companies

4)BIS stands for ________.

a) Bank for internal settlement b) Bank for international settlement

c) Bank for international service d) Bank for Immediate service

5) Over Draft is allowed for __________.

a) Current account b) fixed account c) saving account d) Recurring account

6) ____________ is the other name for hybrid deposits.

a) Fixed deposit b) Saving deposit c) Joint account d) Flexi deposits

7) The schedule banks are included in schedule of ________act.

a) Non-Banking b)Banking c) RBI d) Statutory

8) Reserve Bank of India was established in_________.

a) 1935 b) 1934 c) 1933 d)1936

9) NABARD was established in the year_____________.

a) 1982 B) 1955 c)1956 d) 1955

10) Main function of Exim bank___________.

a) Encourage Rural entrepreneurship b) to provide incentives to new

Industries c) to Grant direct loan in India and outside and to

encourage export-import finance d) to accept deposits

11) SBI was nationalised in year___________.

a)1970 b) 1969 c) 1956 d) 1955

12) Cooperative bank’s function___________.

a) to develop the cooperative movement in district

b) to encourage rural entrepreneurship

c) high protection to domestic industry

d) to increase funds

13) Schedule bank and non schedule bank are the

Classification of ___________.

a) ICICI b) Commercial Banks c) RBI d) NABARD

14) Number of national banks are _________

a) 18 b) 20 c)19 d)15

15) E-banking as also known as__________.

a) Electronic Banking b) Economic Banking c) Essential Banking d) Internet Banking

16) RTGS means____________

a) Real time gross service b) Real time gross system

c) Real time gross settlement d) Real time gain service

17) Minimum period of fixed deposit is __________days

a) 150 b)120 c)30 d)7

18)________are also called as fixed deposit and are repayable

After the expiry of specified term.

a) Term deposit b) fixed deposit c) demand deposit d) saving deposit

19) Hypothecation is the mortgage of________property for

Secure loan.

a) Electronic b) Movable c) immovable d) land and building

20) Banking is essentially a business dealing with__________.

a) Goods b) Machines c) Money d) electronic

21)_______ is the plastic card that allows its holders to buy

Goods and services on credit.

a) Debit card b) credit cards c) Rupay cards d) cash cards

22) Immovable property uses for the purpose of securing the loan is

Called_________.

a) Loan b) Pledge c) Mortgage d) Hypothecation

23) Section 23 of banking regulation act refers to_________.

a) provision related to licencing of banking companies

b) provision related to opening of new branch of operation

c) control over top management

d) Control over investors

24) Section 22 of banking regulation states that_________

a) provide license issued by the RBI

b) open a new branch

c) Provide cash cards

d) have a minimum paid up capital

25) ________is a person who accept deposits, money on current account,

Issue and pay cheques and collect cheques for his customer.

a) Investor b) Banker c) customer d) shareholder

26) Debit card is also known as _________card.

a) Credit b) Cash c) Rupay d) Pay

27)_________ is a person who has an account with the bank.

a) Customer b) Investor c)Banker d) supplier

28)full form for ATM____________.

a) Electronic teller machine b) Automated teller machine

c) Internet teller machine d) Automatic type machine

29) Bank of Bombay was established in the year_________.

a) 1837 b)1839 c) 1840 d)1841

30)____________is an organization which underwrites securities

For companies, advices in variety activities.

a) Tele banking b) online banking c) Merchant banking d) Internet Banking

31) Full form of KYC is__________.

a) Know Your Customer b) Know Your credit c) Know Your Cash d) Know Your Card

32)________is a running amount to which deposits and withdrawal

Can be made frequently.

a) Fixed deposit b) cash credit c) current deposit d) saving deposit

33)The full form from ECS________

a) Electronic clearing system b) Electronic clearing service

c) Electronic cash system d) Electronic credit service

34) Two or more banks agree to finance a particular project

Is called_________

a) NEFT b) ECS c) Pledge d) Loan syndication

35)__________account is normally open for businessmen for

their convenience.

a) Fixed deposit b) Saving deposit c) Current deposit d) Recurring deposit

36)__________ finance is to prevent delay in starting their projects.

a) Assignment b) bridge c) Credit d) Cash

37) Money deposited in the bank remains________.

a) Safe b) Unsafe c) stable d) Save

38)_____________ is the transfer of any existing or future right,

Property or debt by the borrower to the bank for loan.

a) Pledge b) Mortgage c) Assignment d) Cards

39)Banks are commercial __________

a) Houses b) trades c) institutions d) Deposits

40) ___________is the bailment of goods, a security for payment

Of debt.

a) Mortgage b) Pledge c) hypothecation d) Assignment

41) The reserve Bank of India act_________

a)1932 b) 1935 c) 1934 d) 1933

42) Government of India started the national housing bank in__________

a) 1987 b) 1988 c) 1987 d) 1989

43) The industrial finance corporation of India was established in the

Year _____________

a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1949 d)1950

44) Foreign exchange management act came into force effect from__________.

a) 2000 b)2001 c) 2002 d)2003

45) Regional rural Banks were set up under and act of parliament

In ___________

a) 1974 b) 1975 c)1976 d)1978

46) _________account is operated by the bankers for the benefits of the

Senior citizen of the country.

a) Saving account b) Senior citizen deposit account c) cyber deposit d) flexi deposit

47) Every banking company shall have one of its director as the __________

Of it’s Board of Directors.

a) Investors b) Shareholders c) Chairman d) Finance Manager

48)____________ is the instrument of credit control.

a) Cash b) Reserve c) Cash Reserve Ratio d) Credit Ratio

49) The industrial credit and investment corporation of India was established

In the year__________

a) 1955 b) 1956 c) 1957 d)1958

50) Co operative banks are managed by the ____________

a) Secretary b)Shareholder c) Management c) Board of Directors

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