FYBFM - SEM II

MCQ –

Multiple Choice Questions

SAMPLE

MCQ

AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI SYLLABUS

Will be helpful to regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V class of students.

If it is helpful to you so also share it among your friends so that they will be also benefited from it.

ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD

CLASS: F.Y.BFM

SUB : ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1) Interlocking food chains are called________.

a) Food web b) Eco type c) Bio sphere d) Biodiversity

2) Zoo is an example of__________.

a) Ex-situ b) In- situ c) Off-situ c) Out-situ

3)There are over thirteen ________reserves in India.

a) Monosphere b) Hydrosphere c) Trio sphere d) Biosphere

4)_________ is both an engine of creation and distraction.

a) Man b) Machine c) Technology d) Science

5)Plants are green because of the presence of pigment

Called_____________.

a) Chlorophyll b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Methen

6) India has accounts for about_________ of the total surface

area of the world.

a)4.2% b)2.4% c) 2.40 % d)24%

7) Biotech environment does not includes__________.

a) humans b) Plant c) Animal d) Water

8) India has _______ bio geographical zones.

a) 30 b)40 c) 20 d) 10

9)___________ is variety of different version of the same genes

Within individual species.

a) Bio diversity b) Eco system c) Ecology d) Genetic diversity

10)___________ gas occupies the greatest percentage of the

Current atmosphere on the earth.

a) Nitrogen b) hydrogen c) Oxygen d) Ozone

11) Fifth trophic level consist of the____________

a) Manufacturer b) Producer c) Consumer d) Decomposer

12) There are __________mega diversity nations in the world.

a) 15 b) 16 c)17 d)18

13)________soil is suitable for cotton.

a) Black b) White c) Red d) Brown

14) Agriculture decisions are greatly influence by___________

a) Water b) Climate c) Rainfall d) Land

15)_________ is the responsible for the beauty of landscape.

a) Agriculture b) Animal’s c) Plant d) Biodiversity

16) The_________ is the solid rocky crust covering the entire planet.

a) Lithosphere b) Biosphere c) Atmosphere d) Hydrosphere

17) ________ is formed through rock weathering.

a) Water b) Air c) Soil d) Land

18)__________ living things and are unable to produce their own food.

a) Hydrosphere b) Consumers c) Producers d) Auto trophs

19)___________ refers to the highest and lowest elevation point in an area.

a) Relief b) Bio-sphere c) Geology d) Location

20)___________ is a set of Eco system sharing similar characteristics

with there abiotic factors adopted to their environment.

a) Community b) Population c) Society d) Biome

21)The sphere consist of living things are called as ________

a) Atmosphere b) Hydrosphere c) Biosphere d) Lithosphere

22) Earth is known as the ___________.

a) Black Planet b) Red planet c) Blue planet d) Green planet

23) The population of MDC control__________ of the world.

a)75% b) 80% c))90% d)85%

24)__________is the variety of different types of life found on Earth

a variation with in spacious.

a) Horticulture b) Bio diversity c) Industry d) Agriculture

25) Energy obtains from hotspots beneath the earth

Is called ___________energy.

a) Wind b) Geothermal c) Air d) Water

26)___________ degradation is the decline in soil quality.

a) noise b) water c) soil d) air

27)___________ resources are found everywhere.

a) ubiquitous b) Non-renewable c) potential d) renewable

28) Deforestation refers to the loss of ____________.

a) Forest cover b) Desert cover c) Mountain cover d) Water cover

29) Over irrigation causes problems like_________ of soil.

a) soil quality b) Acidity c) Salinity d) fertility

30) There are over 30 _________ parks in India.

a) National b) Children c) International d) Wild animal

31)__________ energy is heat store in earth crust and being used for

Electricity generation.

a) Sun b) Geothermal c) Nuclear d) Wind

32) The ' first earth summit' in rio-de-janeiro was held in_________

a) 1991 b) 1992 c) 1993 d)1994

33)The ___________ of soil is the method that is use to indicate is

degree of acidity.

a) pH b) Acidity c) Temperature d) Biota

34)_________ is the desert in South Western part of South America.

a) kol b) Atacama c) Kalahari d) Sahara

35) Forest helps in reducing the rate of surface run of_________.

a) Water b) Air c) Noise d) Land

36) It is predicted that future wars will be war for___________.

a) Money b) Food c) Water d) Oil

37)____________ resources are known to exist and may be use in the future.

a) Natural b) Actual c) potential d) ubiquitous

38) A society cannot survive if it’s __________ resources are rendered unfit

For use by its people.

a) Natural b) Machine-based c) Man-made d) artificial

39) Forest acts as __________ sink.

a) Oxygen b) Carbon c) Methen d) Nitrogen

40) __________ are lowering of land surface.

a) Waterslides b) Pesticides c) Landslides c) Plant slides

41)___________ is a largest producer of hydroelectric power.

a) India b) China c) Korea d) Japan

42)____________ is the dominant component of physical environment.

a) Water b) Soil c) Plants d) Machines

43)_____________ Is the widest cheap and clean source of energy.

a) Hydropower b) LCD c) Solar energy d) LED

44)Solar energy is derived using _________panels.

a) Solar b) Tidal c) Water d) Thermal

45)___________refers to the loss of vegetation.

a) Thermal shock b) Deforestation c) Noise Pollution d) Water pollution

46)___________ are energy efficient lights.

a) LCD b) LED c) LKD d) LDC

47) The resources occurring only at the few places are known as

____________resources.

a) Renewable b) Non-renewable c) Localized d) Potential

48)____________ is governing factors in raising particular crop.

a) Water b) Air c) Oil d) Soil

49)_____________ acts as a carbon sink.

a) water b) trees c) oil d) air

50) Environment is an_ _________force.

a) Internal b) External c) social d) Economic

CLASS: F.Y B.F.M

SUB : BUSINESS COMMUNICATION

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1) Trade letters deals with

a) Social deals

b) Anti-Social deals

c) Business deals

d) None of the above

2) Tone of Trade letter is

a) Assertive Apologetic

b) Aggressive or Rude

c) Non-Assertive

d) Un-lawful

3) In Inquiries letter the person who does enquiries , must provided with

a) No Information

b) Wrong information

c) Maximum information

d) Minimum information

4) In enquiry letter, reply from replier should_____________ Customer.

a) Provoked

b) Convince

c) Do not convince

d) Neither of them

5) Classification of enquiries are how many types?

a) Five

b) More than Six

c) Three

d) Two

6) Business transactions always begin with

a) No communication

b) Less Communication

c) Letter of Enquiry

d) Or any other Special way

7) Those letters Sent by a buyer on his own initiative are called as

a) Special letters

b) Very Special letters

c) Unsolicited letters

d) Solicited letters

8) In Business letters, word request plays very important role

a) True

b) False

c) Partly true and partly false

d) Nor true nor false

9) Letter of enquiry has to be

a) Very long

b) Very very short

c) Simple and brief

d) Very very long

10) A self addressed , stamped, are means of

a) Slow reply

b) No reply

c) Quick reply

d) Right reply

11) Credit is a promise of ______________payment

a) past payment

b) present payment

c) future payment

d) non- payment for ever

12) A customer who regularly buys from the same supplier would ask, supplier for what type

of account ?

a) close Account

b) No Account

c) false account

d) open account

13) buying on credit, it helps the buyer to enjoy the use of goods

a) due to lose of money

b) before they have saved the money to buy them

c) due to financial problem

d) any of above choice is not applicable

14) replies to the status inquires must be accepted with

a) without caution

b) with caution

c) less caution

d) no any search condition is needed

15) Trade reference letters are marked as _______________letters

a) confidential

b) non-confidential

c)less important

d) more important

16) while drafting complaint letter

a) not to state fact clearly

b) mentioning of fact is not essential

c) state facts clearly

d)mention wrong fact

17) while dealing with the complaint of customer supplier has to be

a) rude

b) very rude

c) polite

d) in mood of no reply

18) Delay in making complaint to the supplier make supplier to

a) easy to investigate matter

b) difficult to investigate matter

c) very easy to investigate matter

d) close the matter

19) collection letters are plant in series

a) true

b) false

c) nor true nor false

d) sometime

20) The second collection letter sent in case of

a) deliberately

b) to call disturbance

c) when there is no response to first

d) or any special reasons

21) Collection letter must be polite and _____________

a) illegal

b) that heart sentiments

c)tactful

d) in-decent

22) Collection letters are sent to customers who have failed to clear their _______

a) Duty

b) Special duty

c) Accounts

d) Remaining/incomplete work

23) Handling difficult customers on part of supplier needs

a) No care

b) Diplomacy

c) Less diplomacy

d) Neither above factor

24) Sales letter plays important role in promoting sales of

a) Only goods

b) Goods and services

c) Only services

d) Immovable goods

25) The objective of sales letter is to convince a prospective buyer about

a) Demerits of a product

b) Merits of a product

c) Damage in goods

d) Any other special reason

26) All sell letters must follow the formula of

a) F I A D

b) A I D A (Attention,interest,desire and action)

c) A S D A

d) D A I A

27) Every sells letter must be

a) Physically and emotionally attractive

b) Less attractive

c) Not attractive at all

d) Physically and socially attractive

28) Promotional material help to establish a cordial relationship between the

a) Customer and the organization

b) Only customer

c) Only organization

d) Between two friends

29) The purpose of any promotional material is to reach reader and convey the

a) No any message

b) Information

c) Very secret information

d) Educational information

30) Promotional material should always be

a) Not clear

b) Very wrong

c) Clear

d) Very supportive

31) Presentation are an important component of _________ communication in organization

a) Written

b) Oral

c) Internal

d) Good

32) Internal and external communication is a part of

a) Contract

b) Presentation

c) Speech

d) Mis-presentation

33) Voice and expression leads to

a) Bad communication

b) Less affective communication

c) Effective communication

d) No communication

34) Organize your speech keeping _______ in mind

a) Time factor

b) Situation

c) Place

d) Situation and place both

35) During presentation maintain

a) Good eye contact with audience

b) No any eye contact

c) Less eye contact

d) To stare at audience

36) Most presentation are followed by questions from

a) Audience

b) Third party

c) Outsiders

d) Neither audience nor third party

37) Most important factor for oral communication

a) Speaker’s action

b) Speaker’s voice

c) Speaker’s standing position

d) Speaker’s reply

38) In presentation if a presenter , one is challenges or drawn into controversial topics, one has to

a) Remain calm

b) Be rude

c) Be aggressive

d) Be impatient

39) In presentation placing the words in the right places is

a) Less important

b) Very important

c) Not important

d) May or may not be important

40) The larger the audience , voice should be

a) Soft

b) Very soft

c) Larger

d) None of the above

41) During presentation one has to make sure, the pronunciation is

a) Right

b) Wrong

c) Not so right

d) Very very right

42) The cause that will loose the hold on attention of audience

a) Variation in speaking speed

b) Variation in subject matter

c) No specific such cause exists

d) Variation of voice

43) Always provide relevant and_________ information to audience

a) Latest

b) Wrong

c) Un-meaningful

d) Out-dated

44) In presentation use ___________ words

a) Without meaning

b) Simple

c) Un-clear

d) Wrong

45) Time limit for long presentation has to be

a) 10 to 15 minutes

b) 1 to 10 minutes

c) 20 to 30 minutes

d) No such time limit

46) To prepare pre-hand list of points to be covered is

a) Not so important

b) Essential

c) Wrong

d) Right

47) Pronounce new or foreign words

a) Loudly

b) Slowly

c) Very loudly

d) Correctly

48) One has to convey ______ in body of your presentation

a) No any message

b) Main message

c) Wrong message

d) None of the above

49) To make presentation more effective

a) No planning is needed

b) Wrong planning is needed

c) Lot of planning is essential

d) Planning does not work in reality

50) Good presentation always has _____ impact on audience

a) Bad

b) Very bad

c) Positive

d) Negative

CLASS: FYBFM SEM 2 REGULAR

SUB : COMPUTER SKILLS

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1 The extension of Microsoft word is :

a) .doca

b ) .docx

c ) .dox

d ) .dot

2 ) This is a convenient resting place for the most frequently used commands in Word.

one can customize it as per requirement

a) Status bar

b) Zoom

c) Document

d) Quick Access Toolbar

3 Ribbon contains commands organized in ___components

a) one

b) three

c) five

d) four

4 These appear across the top of the Ribbon and contain groups of related commands. Home, Insert, Page Layout are examples

a) Tab

b) command

c) document

d) ribbon

5 _________is below the document . It gives idea about the number of pages , words etc in the document .

a) zoom

b) status bar

c) document

d) title bar

6 Short cut key for Copy command

a) Ctrl+ a

b) Ctrl+ b

c) Ctrl+ c

d) Ctrl+ d

7 Short cut key for Cut command is

a) Ctl + X

b) Ctl + A

c) Ctl + C

d) Ctl + D

8 Paragraph formatting is ni which tab

a) home tab

b) edit tab

c) format tab

d) review tab

9 Spelling errors display with a _______under the word.

a) green wavy line

b) red wavy line

c) red double underline line

d) black wavy line

10 Spelling and Grammar Check is in which tab :

a ) home

b) review

c) mailing

d) help

11 Short cut for undo is

a) CTRL+Q

b) CTRL+R

c) CTRL+M

d) CTRL+Z

12 _______the cell that contains the data you want to edit. Excel displays a cursor in your selected cell.

a ) single click

b ) double click

c ) delete

d ) rename

13 Double-click the sheet tab that you want to ______

a ) rename

b ) delete

c ) move

d ) add

14 Short cut key of Replace is

a) Ctrl+A

b) Ctrl+B

c) Ctrl+H

d) Ctrl+C

15 The sort and filter group is in

a) data tab

b) file tab

c) view tab

d) home tab

16 To find multiplication of numbers we use

a) sum function

b) product function

c) count function

d) multiply function

17 The option to protect a sheet is in

a) review tab

b) file tab

c) home tab

d) data tab

18 The correct syntax of if statement is

a) =IF(logical_test, [value_if_true], [value_if_false])

b) =IF(logical_test, [value_if_false], [value_if_true])

c) =IF(false case_test, [value_if_true], [value_if_false])

d) IF(logical_test, [value_if_true], [value_if_false])

19 The option to add chart is in ______ tab

a) file

b) chart

c) insert

d) data

20 To find square root of number we use

a) sum function

b) sqrt function

c) count function

d) multiply function

21 To find average of number we use

a) average function

b) sqrt function

c) count function

d) multiply function

22 To find addition of number we use

e) sum function

f) sqrt function

g) count function

h) multiply function

23 To find number of cell with data we use

a) sum function

b) sqrt function

c) count function

d) multiply function

24 To draw graph related to data we have ________ option

a) smart tool

b) function

c) chart

d) data sort

25 To find a particular text in document we use

a) replace

b) goto

c) data sort

d) find

26 To replace a particular text with some other text in document we use

a) replace

b) goto

c) data sort

d) find

27 To arrange the data in ascending and descending order we have _______ option

a) data arrange

b) data sort

c) data delete

d) data shuffle

28 If don’t want to display a particular row or column we use _____ option

a) show

b) hide

c) delete

d) cancel

29 ______is the collection of physical elements that constitutes a computer system

a) computer software

b) memory

c) computer hardware

d) monitor

30 Joystick is an ________ device

a) hardware

b) software

c) program

d) memory

31 Microphone is an _________ device

a) input

b) output

c) software

d) antivirus

32 Printer is an _________ device

a) input

b) output

c) software

d) antivirus

33 Microsoft office is an ________ software

a) system

b) application

c) back up

d) anti virus

34 ______ are largest of all computer

a) personal computer

b) mini computer

c) macro computer

d) super computer

35 ___________ computer Fits in hand, on lap, or on desktop

a) personal computer

b) mini computer

c) macro computer

d) super computer

36 Touch screen is an _________ device

a) input

b) output

c) software

d) antivirus

37 ALU Stand for

a) all logic unit

b) arithmetic and logic unit

c) arrange logic unit

d) all legal unit

38 CPU stands for

a) central processing unit

b) common processing unit

c) capture processing unit

d) control processing unit

39 CU stands for

a) central unit

b) control unit

c) computer unit

d) costly unit

40 ________ performs arithmetic and logical operations

a) ALU

b) CU

c) CPU

d) MONITOR

41 ______ controls and coordinates computer components

a) ALU

b) CU

c) CPU

d) MONITOR

42 _________ is called brain of computer

a) ALU

b) CU

c) CPU

d) MONITOR

43 ______ stores the data that is to be executed next

a) ALU

b) Register

c) Monitor

d) Printer

44 _______ is a generic term for organized collections of computer data and instructions

a) hardware

b) software

c) register

d) CPU

45 ______is responsible for controlling, integrating, and managing the individual hardware components of a computer system

a) System software

b) Application software

c) hard disk

d) mouse

46 A computer is an electronic device, operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory that can accept data (input), __________according to specified rules, produce information (output), and store the information for future use .

a) store the data

b) process the data

c) shift the data

d) deletes the data

47 Any kind of computers consists of two main parts _____________

a) Monitor and Cpu

b) software and Register

c) Hardware and software

d) hard disk and printer

48 Graphic cards, sound cards, memory, motherboard and chips are examples of ________

a) Hardware

b) software

c) pen drive

d) usb

49 ________ a small collection of programs (often called a software package) that work closely together to accomplish a task

a) Application software

b) floppy

c) pen drive

d) Compact disks

50 Registers are type of _________

a) compact disk

b) memory

c) output device

d) input device

CLASS: F.Y.B.F.M:-II SEM REGULAR

SUB : FINANCIAL ACCOUNT

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1. Company can issued ________class of share .

a.one() b.two() c.four() d.five()

2.prefrence shareholder are entitled to dividend at _____ rate .

a.fixed() b.variable() c.semivariable() d.nill()

3.Final dividend on equity share cane be declared by _______

a.bord of directors() b.central government() c.share holder() d.stock exchange()

4.The rights under ESOP are offered to ___________

a.share holder() b.directors() c.supplier d.employees()

5.Priceband is applicable whare shares are issued by way of__________

a.right() b.IPO() c.bonus() d.preferential()

6.Amount created to forfeited share account at the time of forfeiture of share is______

a.Face value() b.calls in arrear() c.amount receivable() d.called up amount()

7.The minimum amount receivable on issue of share is _______ face value.

a.75%() b.80%() c.90%() d.100%()

8.The amount received in excess of face vale is credited to _____________

a.profit and loss A/c() b.capital reserve A/c() c.security premium A/c() d.share capital()

9.The excess money received due to capital allotment of share be _________

a.refund() b.retained() c.transferred() d.forfited()

10.The share issued after capitalisation of reserve are colled__________

a.right share() b. equity share() c.preference share() sweat equity share()

11.The balance in share application after allotment should have __________balance.

a.nil() b.debit() c.credit() d.short()

12.Short received of allotment money is called_________

a.calls in advance() b.calledup amount() c.call in arrears() d.forfited shows()

13.The portion of un called up capital which company decide to call only in event of liquidation

Is called ____________

a.capital reserve() b.reserve capital() c.uncalled capital() d.calls in arrears()

14.The balance of forfeited share account after reissued of forfeited share is transferred to ______

a.general reserveA/c() b.capital reserveA/c() c.revaluation reserveA/c() d.CRRA/c()

15.the calledup capital of ragini Ltd.4500 share is Rs.382500,Mr Ranjit an allottee of 500share failed to pay the call money of Rs.10 per share the paid up capital in the balance sheet of the company is__________

a.Rs.505000() b.Rs.377500() c.Rs.387500() d.Rs.550000()

16.Vijay Ltd.purchased bilding worth Rs.630000 from Blue dart Ltd. By issue of share Rs.100 each at a discount 10%. the number of share to issue by Vijay Ltd.to settle purchase consideration is ___

a.6300 shares() b.7500shares() c.7000shares() d.5670shares()

17.Share forfeiture account od dabur Ltd. Shows a credit balance of Rs.20000 for 2500 shares

(Rs.10 face value fully called up) out of them 200 shares use reissued as Rs.7 shares the amount

Transformed to capital reserve was ____________

a.Rs.14500() b.Rs.600() c.Rs.10000() d.Rs.15000()

18.The fixed denomination of a share mentioned in the M/A is called _________

a.price of a shares() b.market value() c.face value of a shares() d.fair value of a share()

19.A Share comes in to existence at the time of________

a.Application() b.allotment() c.call() d.Full payment()

20.Discount allowed on reissue of forfeited shares is debited to ____________

a.discountA/c() b.Share forfeited A/c c.profit & lossA/c () d.securities premiumA/c()

21.Shares issued to vendors for consideration other than cash may be issued at_________

a.par() b.calles in arrears() c.Premium() d.discount()

22.Shares issued to vendors for consideration other than cash may be issued at__________

a. Par() b. Discount() c. Premium() d. Any of these()

23. Dividend on shares remain in arrears on ___________

a. Equity shares() b. Non-cumulative preference shares()

c. Cumulative preference shares() d. Government Securities()

24. Issue of shares to the promotors for the services rendered by them is debited to_________

a. Goodwill Account() b. Promotor’s Account()

c. Cash Account() d. None of the above()

25. Profit on reissue of forfeited share is transferred to _______

a. capital reserve A/c b. profit & lossA/c () c. genral reserve A/c d. CRR A/c()

26.X Ltd. Purchase machinery from Y Ltd. For Rs.540000, the consideration was paid by issue of equity share of Rs.10 each at par equity share capital is credited by ________

a. Rs.600000() b. Rs.440000(() c. Rs.540000() d.Rs.650000()

27Goodwill is __________

a.Intangible assets() b.fixed assests() c.realisable() d. all()

28.Goodwill is to be valued when _________

a. Amalgamation take place() b. one company take over another company()

c. a partner is admitted() d. all()

29. Goodwill is paid for obtaining __________

a. future benefits() b. past benefits() c. present benefit() d. none of the above()

30.Super profit is ________________

a.excess of average profit over normal profit()

b. extra profit earned()

c. average profit by similar a company ()

d. none of them()

31.normal profit is __________

A. average profit earned b. profit earned by similar company in the same industry

c. A & B d. None of the above()

32. Normal profit depends on__________

a. NRR() b. average capital employed () c. A&B() d. none of the above()

33.Goodwill as per purchase of average profit method_____

a. average profit() b. average profit*amount of purchase ()

c. average profit*number year purchase () d. all()

34.Goodwill as per purchase or super profit method is equal to ____________

a. super profit() b. super profit*number of year purchase ()

b. super profit*amount of purchase() d. none of the above()

35. Normal rate of return depend on ___________

a. rate of interest() b. rate of risk() c. A&B() d. none of the above()

36.While calculating capital employed __________-

a. tangible trading assets should be consider()

b. intangible assets should be consider()

c. fictitious assets should be consider()

d. none of the above()

37.Any one trading income included in the profit should be____________

a. eliminated() b. added() c. ignored() d. none of the above

38.while deciding net assets value fictitious assets __________

a. should be considered() b. should not be considered()

c added to total assets() d. none of the above()

39.Net assets value method is best on the assumption that the company is __________

a. a going concern() b. going to be liquidated() c. A&B() d. none of the above()

40.yield value depends on ___________

a.future maintainable profit () b. paid up equity capital()

c. NRR () d. all

41.FMP for yield valuation is __________

a. future profit() b. profit that would be available to equity share holder()

c. past profit() d. none of the above

42.Yield value is best on the assumption that _____________

a. the company is a going concern() b. the company will be liquidated()

b. the company is sick() d. none of the above()

43. Fair value of a share is equal to __________

a. intrinsic value only() b. yield value only() c. average of intrinsic and yield value()

d. none of the above()

44. Value of a partly paid equity share is equal to ___________

a. value of fully paid share-unpaid per share()

b. Calls in arrears per share() c. Paid up value per share() d. none of the above()

45. Goodwill is a _________ asset

a. tangible() b. intangible() c. fixed() d. fictitious assets()

46. Goodwill may be valued by ___________method.

a. Super profit() b. past profit() c. future profit() d. present profit()

47.There are mainly ________methods of valuation of goodwill

a. two() b. four() c. six() d. three()

48. Goodwill is not a ____________assets.

a. fictitious() b. fixed() c. current() d. tangible()

49.An intangible assets _________

A. goodwill() b. computer() c. prepaid expenses() d. stock()

50. Assets which is essential__________

a. trading assets() b. non trading asset() c. fixed assets() d. current assets

FYBFM Semester ll Regular

Subject Business Statistic

MCQ( 50 questions)

1 Which measure of Central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores

(a) median (b) range

(c ) mode (d) mean

2 The median of an ordered set of data is the value that represents

(a) the mean of the squared deviations of the value from the mean

(b) the most frequently observed value

(c ) the arithmetic average of the data value

(d) the middle or approximate middle of the data set

3 Measure of Central tendency given as the value above which half of the value fall and below which half of the values fall is called the……..

(a) Maxima(b) mood

(c) median(d) mean

4 What is the median of the following set of scores 19,5, 12 ,10 ,14

(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 19 (d) 12

5 The mean of 10 numbers is 58 if one of the numbers is 40 what is the mean of the The other nine

(a) 540(b) 60 (c) 18(d)162

6 On his first five biology test Bob received the following scores 72,86, 92,63 and 77 what test score must Bob earn on his six test so that his average (mean score) for all 6 test will be 80

(a) 90 (b) 86(c) 95 (d) 80

7 Following are the disadvantage of mean except

(a) does not possess the desired algebraic property

(b) cannot be computed if there are missing value due to omission or non response

(d)in grouped data with open ended class intervals the mean cannot be computed

8 which of the following is not a common measure of Central tendency

(a) means (b) mode

(d) range

9 There are two methods of finding mode in discrete series

(a) midpoint method and table method

(b) descending method and grouping method

(c) inspection method and grouping method

(d) ascending method and grouping method

10 Following are the partition values except

(a) deciles (b) quartile

(c) mode

(d) percentile

11 When the distribution is of open and classes which average may appropriate

(a) mode (b) None

12 Measures of Central tendency are

(a)inferential statistics that identify the best single value for representing a set of data

(b)Descriptive statistic that identify the history of the scores in a data set

(d)descriptive statistics that identify the best single value for representing a set of data

13 The The of a sample is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending or descending rank order

(a) mod (b) range (c)median

(d) mean

14 Approximately what percentage of scores falls within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution

(a) 0.34 (b) 0.95 (c) 0.68(d) 0.99

15 A batsman scores the following number of run in six innings 36,35, 50,46 60 and 55 calculate the min runs scored in an inning

(a) 46 (b) 48 (c) 45(d) 47

16 If the values of mean and median are 40 and 48 find

(a) 62(b) 65(c) 63(d) 64

17 Divides the data into 4 equal part

(a) median (b) quartiles

(b) (c) range (d) mean

18 The median is

(a) affected by extreme scores

(b) the middle point

(d) the highest number

19 Which partition value divides the total set of values into two equal parts

(a) median

(b) quartile

(d) percentile

20 The mean or average used to measure Central tendency is called

(a) sample mean

(b) arithmetic mean

(d) negative mean

21 The method used to compute average or central value of the collected data is considered as

(a) measure of positive variation

(b) (measures of Central tendency

(d) measures of negative variation

22 If the mean of percentage rates and ratios is to be calculated then the central tendency measure which must be used in this situation is

(a) weighted arithmetic mean

(b) paired arithmetic mean

(d) square of arithmetic mean

23 When the data is arranged the middle value in the set of observations is classified as

(a) median

(b) mean

(d) standard deviation

24 The number of observations are 30 and the value of arithmetic mean is 15 then sum of all values is

(a) 15 (b) 450 (c) 200 (d) 45

25 In the quartiles the central tendency median to be measured must lie in

(a) first quartile(b) second quarter(c) third quartile(d) forth quartile

26 The median mode missile and percentile are all considered as measures of

(a) mathematical average

(b) population average

(d) averages of position

27 find the mean of given numbers 26, 39, 52, 81 ,93

(a) 59.2 (b) 58.2 (c) 60 (d) 62

28 Find the arithmetic mean for the given numbers 2,7,3 ,5,6,1

(a) 5 (b) 6 ( c) 4 (d) 8

29 Find the mode of the given data 5 ,3,4,1 1,2,4,6,4

(a) 2 (b) 4. (c) 6. (d)1

30 Find the median for the given data

(a) 11(b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5

31 In case of extreme value the best measure of Central tendency is is

(a) arithmetic mean

(b) median

(c)mode

(d) quartile

32 If the arithmetic mean median and mode of a set of observation are the same then we conclude that

(a) not possible

(b) the values of the observations must be identical

(c) cannot conclude anything

(d) the values are undefined

33 The mode of of 59 10 15 20

(a) does not exist

(b) each value is a mood

(d) the arithmetic mean in this case

34 A group of 20 may have arithmetic mean v and a group of 30 women have arithmetic mean 6:00 then the combined arithmetic mean of the entire group is

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 5.6 (d) 8

35 The arithmetic mean of the weight of a group of 9 children was 12 KG when a new child and enroll in the group the arithmetic mean of the group becomes 12.2 kg then the weight of the new and entrant is

(a) 13 kg (b) 14 kg (c) 13.5 kg.

(d) 16 kg

36 Arithmetic mean is affected by

(a) change of original alone

(b) change of scale alone

(c) change of origin and scale

(d) change of median

37 A………….. is a collection of people item or events about which you want to make interference

(a) population

(b) sample

(d) sampling

38 A…….. consist of one or more observations from the population

(a) population

(b) sample

(d) data

39 A measurable characteristic of a sample is called a…..

(a) statistic

(b) (b) population

(c) (c) sample

(d) (d) collection

40 A measurable characteristic of a population such as a mean or standard deviation is called a……….

(a) parameter

(b) sample

(d) observations

41 ………… is the study of the collection analysis interpretation presentation and organisation of data

(a) parameter

(b) statistic

(c)population

(d) sample

42 There are how many methods of sampling

(a) 4. (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8

43 Dash is a statical method involving the selection of elements from an ordered sampling frame

(a) systematic sampling

(b) stratification

(d) normal sampling

44 The ………….. means the number of items a value of the characteristic (attribute or the variant as the case may be) has appeared in the data

(a) frequency (b) size of data

(d) grouping of data

45 Find the arithmetic mean of the given data. 5,6,3,2 ,6,5,3,6

(a) 5.6. (b) 4.5 (c) 4.6 (d) 3.5

46 find the mode for the given data -5,-3,0 –1,-2,-3

(a) -3 (b). -2 (c). -1. (d) -4

47 Find the median for the given data 5, 6, 6, 5, 4, 4, 5, 3, 2 ,2

(a) 4.5 (b). 5 (c) 6 (d). 7

48 (a) A table showing the groups and their corresponding frequencies is called a…………

(a) Grouped

(b) (b) single data

(c) (c) class (d) limit

49 If in a beauty pagent more importance is to be given to beauty other than the intelligence of the candidates then the best measure of doing so is

(a) arithmetic mean

(b) weighted arithmetic mean

(c) median

(d) mood

Principal of management

Unit 1

1 Management achieve organisational goals by working with and through____

1 People 2 Machines 3 Staffing 4 Resources

2. Management use resources for achieving the objectives of the __________________.

1. Organization, 2. Department, 3. Individual, 4. None of the above

3. ________ involves communicating , leading and Motivating

1 Directing 2 Controlling 3 Staffing 4 Resourcing

4. In the word, “PODSCORB, D stand for _____________________.

1. Directing, 2. Department, 3. Dictating, 4. Developing

5. Human skills are also called___________________.

1. Leadership skills, 2. Interpersonal skills, 3. Intra personal skills, 4. Communication skills

6________ means bring resources together and use them properly for achieving the objectives

1 Organising 2 Controlling 3 Staffing 4 Directing

7. As per Mintzberg manager need to play roles as a __________________.

1. Leader, 2. Communicator, 3. Messenger, 4. Planner

8. The lower level managers required more ______ skills fever conceptual skill.

1 Technical 2 Logical 3 Conceptual 4 Political

9. Obedient, and respectful employees bring ___________ in the organization.

1. Discipline, 2. Goodwill, 3. Order, 4. Coordination

10. The degree to which authority rests at the very top level of management is called

__________________.

1. Decentralization, 2. Centralization, 3. Coordination, 4. Communication.

11. Principle which follow One plan of action to guide the organization is called ___________.

1. Unity of Direction, 2. Unity of Command, 3. Unity of decision, 4. Unity of action

12. Principle which emphasis that employees should have only one boss.

1. Unity of Direction, 2. Unity of Command, 3. Unity of decision, 4. Unity of action

Unit 2

13 Management starts with ________________

1 Organising 2 Planning 3 Coordination 4 Control

14 It provides sense of _____ to various activities .

1 Direction 2 Coordination 3 Communication 4 Unity

15 ____________ means comparison between planned and actual output

1 Controlling 2 Planning 3 Organising 4 Staffing

16 Panning aims to give the highest returns at the lowest possible cost . It thus increases the ________

1 Effectiveness 2 Efficiency 3 Profitability 4 Accuracy

17 General statements which guide or channel thinking in decision making of subordinates are called

1 Policies 2 Plans 3 Procedures 4 Goals

18 A sequences of actions that must be taken to accomplish a particular task is known as ___________

1 Policies 2 Plans 3 Procedures 4 Goals

19 ______________ is single use plan

1 Strategies 2 Policies 3 Programme 4 Rules

20 __________ is a standing plan.

1 Policies 2 Programme 3 Schedule 4 Budget

21 Strategy refers to the determination of the ______

1 Policies to implements 2 Long term Objectives

3 Short term objectives 4 Medium term objectives

22 External premises come from the _______

1 Internal environment 2 External environment

3 Department 4 Organisational goals

23 MBO means _________

1 Management by Objections 2 Management by Objectives

3 Management by Orientation 4 Management by Output

24 MBO involves ______________

1 Superior and subordinate work together

2 Superiors work together

3 Subordinates work together

4 Department work together

25 ______________ is integral part of planning .

1 Decision making 2 Participating 3 Moving 4 Adjusting

CLASS: F.Y. BFM

SUB : FOUNDATION COURSE

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

1. The term _____ refers to freedom to business enterprises from excessive government control.

a. privatization b. liberalization c. disinvestment d. globalization

2. Economic liberalisation was a bold decision by the Prime Minister _________.

a. Rajiv Ghandhi b. Narsimha Rao c. Atal Bihari Bajpai d. Narendra Modi

3. The term ______ implies reduction in the role of the public sector and increases the role of the private sector in business and non-business activities.

a. liberalization b. privatization c. disinvestment d. globalization

4. In the state of __________, the number of farmer’s suicides is the highest.

a. Karnataka b. Madhya Pradesh c. Maharashtra d. Chhattisgarh

5. _________ means integrating the national economy with the world’s economy.

a. Disinvestment b. Privatization c. Globalization d. Liberalization

6. As per the New Industrial Policy, 1991, at present there are only ______ industries reserved for public sector.

a. Six b. three c. five d. four

7. ______ is the process of selling government equity in PSUs to private parties.

a. Disinvestment b. Privatization c. Globalization d. Liberalization

8. __________ means movement or shift of people from one place to another.

a. Disinvestment b. Migration c. Globalization d. Liberalization

9. ______ refers to coerced movement of people away from their home.

a. Regional Migration b. Local Migration c. Mass Migration d. Forced Migration

10. The government of India has given autonomy to the Board of Directors of PSUs in _____.

a. selection b. recruitment c. training d. decision-making

11. ____ is working with farmers by corporate firms and sharing the rewards.

a. Contract farming b. Corporate farming c. Government farming d. Private farming

12. As per the New Industrial Policy, 1991, licensing is required in _____ industries.

a. Six b. Seven c. Five d. Eight

13.____ is undertaken by large corporative firms either by buying the land or taking the land on lease basis.

a. Contract farming b. Corporate farming c. Government farming d. Private farming

14. Article 15 of the Constitution provides for ___ equality and equal access to public areas. a. legal b. judicial c. social d. religious

15. Humans rights are derived from the principle of ____ law.

a. government b. natural c. judicial d. human

16. The UDHR consists of a Preamble and ______ articles highlighting human rights and freedoms entitled to everyone in the world.

a. 15 b. 20 c.10 d. 30

17. ________ rights aim at personal good of an individual as well as that of the community. a. Natural b. Fundamental c. Enforced d. Religious

18. Human rights in a more specified and well-defined manner came with the signing of _____ in 1215.

a. UDHR b. theory of the natural law c. Magna Carta d. The Natural Rights Duty

19. Abolition of ___ is provided under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution.

a. Caste b. Child labour c. Untouchability d. racism

20.____ of the Constitution abolishes the practice of the untouchability.

a.Article14 b. Article 17 c. Article 18 d. Article 16

21. ____ empowers the citizens to move to the court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.

a. Cultural and Educational Rights b. Right to Speech c. Right to Education d. Right to Constitutional Remedies

22. Article 21(A) has made ______ education as a fundamental right.

a. higher b. secondary c. primary c. management

23. _____ has made primary education as a fundamental right.

a. Cultural and Educational Rights b. Right to Speech c. Right to Educationd. Right to Equality

24. The objective of the Right to Freedom of Religion is to sustain the principle of _____

a. secularism b. socialism c. humanism d. regionalism

25. The ______ are defined as basic human freedoms which every Indian citizen has right to enjoy for proper and harmonious development of personality.

a. Directive Principle of State Policy b. Fundamental Rights c. Human Rights d. Natural Rights

26. Human Rights are those conditions of ________ life without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best.

a. political b. economical c. social d. personal

27. The National Rights theory first germinated in _______ Theory of Ethics as the basis for politics.

a. Grotius b. Locke c. Hobbes d. Dr. Ambedkar

28. Human rights have _____ applications.

a. limited b. maximum c.universal d. most

29. ______ law can be traced to the thoughts of Sophocles and Aristotle.

a. personal b. natural c. human d. social

30. Globalisation has improved in the living structure of

a. All the people b. Workers in developing countries c. People in developed countries d. No people

31. Which Indian industries have been hit by globalisation?

a. Cement b. Jute c. Toy making d. Information Technology (IT)

32. Which organisations strain on the liberalisation of foreign investment and foreign trade?
a. International Monetary Fund b. World Health Organisation

c. World Trade Organisation d. International Labour Organisation

33. Tax on imports can be treated as
a. Collateral b. Trade Barriers c. Foreign Traded d. Terms of Trade

34. The main reason behind MNCs investments are ______

a. To benefit foreign countries

b. To provide financial support to the country’s government

c. For the welfare of underprivileged people.

d. To increase the assets and earn profits.

35. Which institute supports investments and foreign trade in India?
a. International Monetary Fund (IMF) b. World Trade Organisation (WTO)

c. World Bank d. International Labour Organisation (ILO)

36. When did the government remove the barriers for investment and investment in India?
a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992 d) 1993

37. Rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as:
a. Privatisation b. Globalisation c. Liberalisation d. Socialisation

38. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions:
a. of all the people b. of people in the developed countries c. of workers in the developing countries d. no people.

39. World Trade Organisation (WTO) was started at the initiative of which one of the following group of countries?
a. Rich countries b. Poor countries c. Developed countries d. developing countries

40. An MNC is a company that owns or controls production in ____________
a. one country b. more than one countryc. only developing countries d. only developed countries

41. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called ________.

a. Liberalisation b. Investment c. Favourable Trade d. Free trade

42. Companies who set up production units in the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of:
a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 4 years d. 10 years

43. Investment made by MNC’s are termed as ________.

a. Indigenous investment b. Foreign Investment

c. Entrepreneur’s investment d. Direct investment

44. What was the main channel connecting countries in the past?
a Labour b Religion c Technology d Trade

45. ‘The impact of Globalisation has not been fair.’ Who among the following people have not benefitted from globalisation?
a Well off consumers b Small producers and workers

c Skilled and educated producers d Large wealthy producers

46. Which Indian company was bought over by Cargill Foods—a large American MNC? Pick out the name from the alternatives provided
a Amul b Fun Foods Ltd. c Agro Tech Foods Ltd. d Parakh Foods

47. In which year did the government decide to remove barriers on foreign trade and investment in India?
a 1993 b 1992 c 1991 d 1990

48. Which of the following industries have been hard hit by foreign competition?
a Dairy products b Leather industry c Cloth industry d Vehicle industry

49. Who is the current chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?

a Justice A.S. Anand b Justice H.L. Dattuc Justice S. Rajendra Babu d Justice K. Balakrishnan

50. When changes have been made in the National Human Rights Commission Act?

a 2001 b 1999 c 2006 d 2016

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