FYBMS - SEM II - MCQ
MCQ – Multiple - Choice - Questions
SAMPLE MCQ
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI
SYLLABUS
Will be helpful to
regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online
examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V
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CLASS: FY BMS - SEM II
– REGULAR –
Business Communication
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1.
Communication is a _________
a.
One way process
b.
two way process
c.
three way process
d.
four way process
2.
What
are not the important considerations of the effective presentations
a.
Content
b.
Structure
c.
human
element
d.
Decorations
3.
A
Group discussion is the tool used by B Schools, institutions and companies to
assess the _______ of the person
a.
Personality
b.
Money
status
c.
Ethics
d.
Morals
4.
The
content in the presentation must be _____ and relevant to the listeners
a.
Disturbing
b.
Argumentative
c.
Authentic
d.
Baseless
5.
Grapevine
communication is associated with _____communication.
a.
Formal
b.
Informal
c.
Horizontal
d.
Vertical
6.
A
Table is a container that holds information about the _____ items
a.
Like
b.
Unlike
c.
Different
d.
Not
related
7.
___________
is gaining increasing popularity because of its simplicity, reliability and
minimal time factor
a.
Leadership
Co-ordination
b.
Grapevine
communication
c.
Group Discussions
d.
Interview
8.
A
presenatation is a form of oral communication in which a person shares factual
information with an audience that is
a.
Small
b.
Large
c.
Specific
d.
mixed
9.
What
are not the Ingredients of Group discussion
a.
Planning
b.
Proper
no of participants
c.
Proper
leadership
d.
Initiating fights
10.
Receiving,
Interpreting, Remembering, Evaluating and Responding are the elements in the
process of _____
a.
Writing
b.
Speaking
c.
Listening
d.
Arguing
11.
A
GD is highly structured because:
a.
It
is coordinated by a moderator
b.
It
measures group communication skills
c.
Members
have to listen to the views of others
d.
The topic, time and number of participants are all decided
in advance
12.
Actual instructions in flowcharting are
represented in __________
a.
Circles
b.
Boxes
c.
Arrows
d.
Lines
13.
Which
of these qualities are important in a group discussion?
a.
Emotional stability
b.
Hostility
c.
Ignorance
d.
Aggressiveness
14.
The
process of drawing a flowchart for an algorithm is called __________
a.
Performance
b.
Evaluation
c.
Algorithmic
Representation
d.
Flowcharting
15.
When
is the worst time to break into a discussion?
a.
When
everyone is silent
b.
When
one person is talking
c.
When two or three people are talking simultaneously
d.
When
there is less time left.
16.
Which
of the following is not an advantage of a flowchart?
a.
Better
communication
b.
Efficient
coding
c.
Systematic
testing
d.
Improper documentation
17.
A
group discussion must advance _____
a.
Truth
b.
Dishonesty
c.
Personal
glory
d.
Arguments
18.
The
following are uses of the bar graphs except
a.
Shows how parts of a whole are distributed
b.
Indicates
the composition of several items over time
c.
Shows
changes in one item over time
d.
Compare
the size of several items at a time
19.
The
following can cause communication barriers except
a.
Emotional
distractions
b.
Ethical communication
c.
Restrictive
environment
d.
Too
many messages
20.
A
moderator is a monitor of a group discussion.
a.
True
b.
False
21.
A
_______ presentation consists of slideshow
a.
Bar
graphical
b.
Line
graphical
c.
Power point
d.
Pie
graphical
22.
In
a group discussion, we should be _____
a.
Assertive
b.
Dominating
c.
Subjective
d.
Ignorant
23.
OHP
stands for _____
a.
Over head Projector
b.
Over
head Presentation
c.
Over
head power point
d.
Over
head PPT
24.
Which
of these factors do not enhance listening skills?
a.
Attention
b.
Clear
perception
c.
Fakeness
d.
Frankness
25.
A
job interview is a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer.
a.
True
b.
False
26.
Transparencies
must be covered with ____ paper
a.
Opaque
b.
Transparent
c.
Gelatine
d.
Craft
paper
27.
Which
of these is not a type of interview?
a.
Screening
interview
b.
Stress
interview
c.
Music interview
d.
Lunch
interview
28.
Verbal
skills uses _____ and _______
a.
Body
language and pictures
b.
Colours
and diagrams
c.
Intention
and assessments
d.
Right words and lucid delivery
29.
Power
point provides information in the form of ______
a.
Pie
charts
b.
Flowcharts
c.
Slides
d.
Pictorial
representations
30.
Which
kind of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job
applicant is evaluated?
a.
Stress
interview
b.
Screening interview
c.
Group
interview
d.
Behavioural
interview
31.
In
which of these, more than one candidate is interviewed?
a.
The
behavioural interview
b.
The
stress interview
c.
The group interview
d.
The
audition
32.
Meetings
have a _______ agenda
a.
Liquid
b.
Fixed
c.
Indefinite
d.
Decided
on spot
33.
______
questions assess the candidate’s response to a sensitive issue.
a.
Closed
b.
Probing
c.
Loaded
d.
Leading
34.
_______
meetings are conducted once in a year
a.
Annual general meetings
b.
Executive
meetings
c.
Committee
meetings
d.
Special
meetings
35.
Which
of these should be avoided in an interview?
a.
Attentiveness
b.
Accuracy
c.
Negative attitudes
d.
Clarity
36.
Which
of these is not a characteristic of a group personality?
a.
Spirit
of conformity
b.
Respect
for group values
c.
Collective
power
d.
Disrespect
37.
Paperwork
is the responsibility of the ____
a.
Chairman
b.
Secretary
c.
Treasurer
d.
Member
38.
Which
of these is the first ingredient in a group discussion?
a.
Planning
b.
Purpose
c.
Informality
d.
Leadership
39.
An
interview involves ________ communication
a.
Face to face
b.
Online
c.
Telephonic
d.
Email
40.
The
candidate answering the question during the Interview is known as the _____
a.
Interviewer
b.
Communicator
c.
Interviewee
d.
Leader
41.
An
_____ interview is a kind of grievance interview
a.
Promotion
b.
Exit
c.
Problem
d.
Fresh.
42.
_________
interview is conducted to evaluate the acheivements of subordinates
a.
Promotion
b.
Exit
c.
Assessment
d.
Problem
43.
A
__________ is communication between multiple people
a.
Conversation
b.
Dailogue
c.
Speech
d.
Elution
44.
Which
of the following is not a meeting
a.
General
members meeting
b.
Special
meeting
c.
Peer meeting
d.
Executive
meeting
45.
Which
of the following is not an advantage of the committee meeting?
a.
Instant
Feedback to ideas presented.
b.
Avoidance
of responsibility
c.
Different
perceptions of the problems made available
d.
Feeling
of involvement and participation
46.
The
term Group Dynamics refers to processes, performance and alterations which
happen _______ the group
a.
Outside
b.
Inside
c.
Externally
d.
With
the consent
47.
Successful
group dynamics hinges on connectedness
a.
True
b.
False
c.
Partly
True
d.
Partly
False
48.
A
_____ is written intimation of the date, time, place and business to be
transacted at a meeting.
a.
Notice
b.
Agenda
c.
Agreement
d.
Resolution
49.
The
Agenda of a meeting is a ________ of various items of business to be discussed
at a meeting.
a.
Items
of business
b.
Listed programme
c.
Collection
d.
Distribution
50.
_______
aids supplement presenations to increase clarity
a.
Graphic
b.
Text
c.
Brief
summary
d.
pointer
SUB : Principles of Marketing
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1. Marketing
is a systematic process of Identifying ………….. needs and wants
a. Customer
b. Dealer
c. Supplier
d. Local
2. Marketer’s
design and distributes …………. Like FMGC products and consumer durables.
a. Intangibles
b. Tangibles
c. Ideas
d. Services
3. When
product performance exceed customer expectations, the customers are…………..
a. Satisfied
b. Astonished
c. Delighted
d. Good
4. In
Order to expand the busines, the firm may undertake ………… so as to increase
marketing activities in the existing
market
a. Product
development
b. Market
development
c. Market
growth
d. market
penetration
5. Marketing
guru ……………says tat customer word of mouth is the best alternative to
advertising.
a. Philip
kotlar
b. Al
Ries
c. Jerome
Mc Carthy
d. Kelvin
kellor
6. …………….
Is a process which consists of systematic gathering , recording and analyzing
data about marketing problems
a. Marketing
research
b. Branding
c. Advertising
d. service
7. ……………. Is the paid form of non-personal promotion of ideas, goods and services by an
identified sponsor.
a. Publicity
b. Branding
c. Advertising
d. service
8. ……………..
refers to the exchange value at which the seller is willing to sell and buyers
is welling to buy.
a. Product
b. Price
c. Promotion
d. Place
9. …………………….
Is concerned with managing detailed information about individual customer and
all customer touch points.
a. Relationship
management
b. Customer
relationship management
c. Personal
selling
d. Brand
customer
10. The
purpose of CRM is to enhance ………. Loyalty.
a. Brand
b. Customer
c. Store
d. Price
11. ………………
is a process of launching a product in a very limited market area in order to
find out the acceptance of the product by the customers.
a. Market
research
b. Test
marketing
c. Product
design
d. store
12. …………………
Popularized the concept of 4ps in his book “ basic marketing”
a. Philip
Kotler
b. Jerome
Mc carthy
c. Willian
Stanton
d. Marshall
13. ………………..
is a set of marketing tools that the firm uses to pursue its marketing
objective in the target market.
a. Marketing
mix
b. Product
mix
c. Marketing
research
d. Market
development
14. A
……………. Can be defined as anything that is offered to the market for attention,
acquisition and consumption that can satisfy a need or want
a. Promotion
b. Product
c. Idea
d. Service
15. ………………
consit of advertising, sales promotion, personal selling, etc.
a. Product
mix
b. Place
mix
c. Distribution
mix
d. Promotion
mix
16. Involves
all the activities the company undertakes to communicate and promote its
products to the target market .
a. Product
b. Promotion
c. Physical
distribution
d. Place
17. A
…………. Strategy involves marketing efforts mainly personal selling and trade
promotion directed to intermediaries to induce them to stock and promote the product to end user
a. Push
b. Pull
c. Distribution
d. Sales
18. A……………
,marketer discover and produces solution which the customer did not ask for but
to which they enthusiastically respond.
a. Responsive
b. Anticipative
c. Creative
d. Service
19. …………………
refers to desire for a product backed by the ability to pay and the willingness
to buy that product.
a. Need
b. Wants
c. Demand
d. services
20. the
exchange of goods and services, with or with out money, is a …………
a. Transaction
b. Transfer
c. Satisfaction
d. Service
21. A combination of quality,
service and price is called as ……………………
a. Customer
value triad
b. Satisfaction
c. Delight
d. Service
22. The
…………….. concept assumes that consumers will prefer those products that are
widely available and are of lower price.
a. Exchange
b. Service
c. Product
d. Production
23. The
……….. concept lays emphasis on research
and development to improve quality which would increase sales
a. Exchange
b. Production
c. Product
d. Sales
24. The
……….. concept is adopted most aggressively by seller of unsought goods.
a. Product
b. Selling
c. Marketing
d. Service
25. The
……………. Concept is also know as customer oriented concept.
a. Marketing
b. Societal
c. Holistic
d. Service
26. The
…………. Concept is lays emphasis on conversation of environment.
a. Marketing
b. Societal
c. Holistic
d. Service
27. ……………..
introduce the holistic concept of marketing.
a. Philip
Kotler
b. William
Stanton
c. Prof.
theodore levitt
d. Marshall
28. In
case of ……………. Efforts are made to build,
maintain and enhance long term relation ship with customers, dealer, suppliers
and others stakeholders.
a. Integrated
marketing
b. Relationship
marketing
c. Performance marketing
d. Holistic
marketing
29. ………………..
refers to all those forces and factors that influence marketing decision.
a. Market
research
b. MIS
c. Marketing
Environment
d. Market
development
30. The
……………… consist of all those factors in the company’s immediate environment that
affects its ability to serve its target markets.
a. Micro
environment
b. Macro
environment
c. Marketing
environment
d. Holistic
environment
31. ………….
Environment studies human population with references to its size, density,
distribution, etc
a. Demography
b. Economic
c. Political
d. Density
32. The
………environment consist of culture, traditions, beliefs, values and lifestyle of
a society.
a. Political
b. Natural
c. Socio
culture
d. Cultural
33. …………………..
takes place when existing customer go for repeat purchases and also recommend
the brand to others.
a. Brand
equity
b. Brand
Loyalty
c. Brand
Image
d. Brand
face
34. ……………….
Research covers studying consumer profile and their buying pattern.
a. Consumer
b. Dealer
c. Product
d. Service
35. ……………………
Research studies dealer contribution in increasing sales.
a. Consumer
b. Dealer
c. Product
d. Service
36. …………….
Research includes reviewing product line.
a. Consumer
b. Dealer
c. Product
d. Service
37. Research
includes sales forecasting and sales analysist
a. Market
b. Place
c. Good
d. Sales
38. …………………
is the impression , which one forms about a certain situation or object
a. Learning
b. Motive
c. Perception
d. Skills
39. Marketing
decision support system is an important component of…………………
a. MIS
b. Marketing
research
c. Marketing
environment
d. Market
development
40. A
…………… is a set of statistical tools that assist marketing managers to make
improved marketing decision.
a. Marketing
research
b. Marketing
intelligence
c. marketing
decision support system
d. market
41. …………..
means grouping of data int different categories.
a. Coding
b. Classification
c. Tabulation
d. Data
42. ………………..
refers to the action and decisions process of people who purchase goods and
services for personal consumption.
a. Marketing
environment
b. Marketing
research
c. Consumer
behaviour
d. Market
development
43. ………….
Helps managers to recognize market trands
a. MIS
b. Service
c. Decision
d. Goods
44. Marketing
process is ……………. In nature.
a. Stable
b. Change
c. Continuous
d. Active
45. ………. Includes pull and push strategy.
a. Place
b. Product
c. Price
d. promotion
46. A………….
strategy involves marketing efforts mainly directed at the end user to enduce
them to demand the product from the dealer.
a. Push
b. Pull
c. Distribution
d. Dealer
47. ………………
includes the various activities the company
undertake to make the product available to the target audience.
A
price
b.
product
c. place
d.
promotion
48. in 1990, ……… …. Proposed a model of 4Csof marketing
a. Philip kotlar
b. william Stanton
c. jerom Mc
d. Robert lauterborn
49. A …………… marketer finds a
stated need and fill it.
a. Responsive
b. Anticipative
c. Creative
d. Need
50. An ,…………… marketer finds
out what customer may need it in the near future.
a.
responsive
b.
anticipative
c.
creative
d.
Need
CLASS:
FYBMS- SEM 2 REGULAR
SUB : PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1.
According to Mary
Parker Follet, management is an
of getting things done from people.
a) art b) profession
c) science d) vocation
2. The
process of management is
in nature.
a) constant b)
continuous c) random d) one time
3. In
organisations, management and ownership need not be one and the same.
a) medium b) growing
c) small d) large
4. Frequent
increases
selection and training costs.
a)
labour
turnover b) wastages c) absenteeism d) attendance
5. is
the relationship between return and costs.
a) relativity b)
efficiency c) productivity d) effectiveness
6. ,
father of scientific management, was the first person to consider management as
a science.
a) Henry
Fayol b) Louis Allen c) Elton Mayo d)
F.W. Taylor
7. Management
is a
science.
a) physical b) natural
c) social d) environmental
8. The
professional normally charge
for their services rendered to the clients.
a)
fees b) surplus c) profits
d) revenue
9. As a ,
the manager represents his organisation while interacting with outsiders.
a) Disseminator b)
spokesperson c) monitor d) leader
10.
popularized the concept of managerial skills.
a)
Robert
Katz b) Robert Blake c) Henry Fayol d) F.W. Taylor
11.
skills
refer to problem solving skills.
a) Technical b) conceptual
c) administrative d) design
12. A
is an estimate expressed in numerical terms.
a)
Budget b) plan c) report
d) policy
13. The
managerial grid model was developed by .
a) Luther
Gullick b) Henry Fayol c)
Blake and Mouton d) Louis Allen
14. According
to ,
a subordinate should receive orders from only one superior.
a) Unity of command b) scalar chain c) unity of direction d) order
15. Management
is a
since it follows certain well- established principles in managing
organisations.
a) Science
b) vocation c) profession
d) art
16. According
to the ,
certain techniques may work well in a certain situation and not in all
situations.
a) Contingency approach b) scientific management theory c) bureaucracy theory d) administrative management theory.
17. Means
social justice.
a) Order b) equity c) remuneration d) initiative
18.
Refers to the line of command.
a) Scalar chain b) order
c) unity of command d) unity of
direction
19. Authority must be
to responsibility.
a) Less b) zero
c) equal d)
more
20. The
management is concerned with framing
plans and policies.
a) Shopfloor b) middle
c) top d)
lower
21. The
management frames mission statement of the organisation.
a) Operative b) lower
c) middle d) top
22. Is
deciding in advance what to do, how to do it, when to do it and who is to do
it.
a) Planning
b) controlling c)
organising d) directing
23.
Involves not only instructing people what to do, but also ensuring that they
know what is expected of them.
a) Staffing b)
directing c) co-ordination d) reporting.
24.
Refers to integration of activities or actions.
a) Directing b) co-ordination
c) staffing d) organising
25. Style
is characterised by high concern for production and high concern for people.
a) Impoverished
management b) country club
management c) task management d) team management
26.
provides
a sense of direction to business activities.
a) Decision
making b) controlling c) organising
d) planning.
27. The
plans are meant for repeated use.
a) Standing b) realistic
c) single use d) time bound
28. The
is a statement that reflects the vision, the basic purpose and philosophy of
the organisation.
a) Objectives b) policy
c) mission d) targets
29.
Defines the boundaries within which decisions are made.
a) Policy
b) procedure c)
strategy d) rules
30. A
is a time table for activities.
a) Rule b)
schedule c) budget
d) policy
31. The
concept of MBO was popularised by
a) Henry
Fayol b) F.W.Taylor c) Elton Mayo
d) Peter Drucker
32. Is a
process of identifying a set of feasible alternatives , and from these
selecting a course of action.
a)
Decision
Making b)
Directing c) Planning d) Leading
33. A
decision is used for repetitive activities.
a) Rational b) irrational
c) programmed d) non programmed
34. Is
the study of people or organisations making interdependent choices.
a) Queuing
theory b) game theory c) payoff
matrix d) probability decision theory
35. In ,
the group members think independently.
a) Delphi
technique b) quality circles c) brainstorming technique d)
nominal group technique
36. Of
planning means it is the basic function of management without which other
functions are difficult to carry out.
a) Pervasiveness b) goal
c) integration d) primacy
37.
Of planning means that its need exists at all levels of management.
a) Integration b) primacy
c) pervasiveness
d) initiative
38. It is
advisable to consult the subordinates before setting targets so that the plans
are
to the subordinates.
a) Suitable b) flexible
c) acceptable d) simple
39. A good
plan should facilitate
so that the managers are able to monitor the performance.
a) Organisation b)
control c) flexibility d) co ordination
40. Planning
helps to
risks.
a) Maximise b)
minimise c) balance
d) increase
41. There
could be cases of
so that the managers can easily attain achieve targets and receive compliments
for the same.
a) Over
targeting b) human error c) flexibility d)
under targeting
42. Is a
process of identifying and selecting a course of action to solve a specific
problem.
a)
Decision
making b)
organising c) planning d) controlling
43.
Decisions are based on factual information.
a) Quick b) haste
c) sound d) prompt
44. Managers
need to make
decisions , so as to generate higher returns than the cost incurred.
a) Flexible b) cost effective c) quick
d) proactive
45. In
order to find out the feasibility of each alternative, the manager needs to
undertake
a)
Cost
benefit analysis b) allocation
of resources c) collection of data d)
review of performance.
46. Planning
may generate
among managers and they may not put in more efforts even if the situation is
favourable.
a) Flexibility b) initiative
c) frustration d) rigidity
47. Is a
broad long term plan for bringing the organisation from the present position to
the desired position in the future.
a)
Strategy b) objective c) mission
d) policy
48.
Are plans that establish a required method of handling future activities.
a) Policies b)
procedures c) programmes d) projects
49. Are
specific statements of what should be done and what should not be done in
certain situations.
a) Budget b) policies
c) rules d) schedules
50. The
brainstorming technique to solve problems was developed by
a) Henry
Fayol b) Peter Drucker c) Elton Mayo
d) Alex Osborn
SUBJECT BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
(MCQ 50 QUESTIONS)
1 find
the simple interest on Rs 5200 for 2 years at 6% per annum.
(a)Rs 450 (b)
Rs 524 (c) Rs 600
(d)Rs 624
2 Rs
1200 is lent out at 5% per annum simple interest for 3 years find the amount
after 3 years
(a)Rs 1380 (b) Rs 1290 (c) Rs1470
(d) Rs 1200
3 Interest
obtained on a sum of Rs 5000 for 3 years is rupees 1500 find the rate percent
(a) 8%
(b) 9%(c) 10% (d) 11%
4
Rupees 2100 is lent at Simple interest of 5% per annum for 2 years find the
amount after two years
(a) Rs 2300
(b) Rs 2315.25
(c) Rs 210
(d)Rs 2320
5 Find
the difference between the simple interest and the compound interest at 5% per
annum for 2 years on principal of rupees 2,000
(a) 5(b)
10.5 (c) 4.5 (d)
6 Amount= ………..
(a) principal + interest
(b) Principal
+ rate of interest
(c)
principal + time (d) principal + principal
7 The interest calculated on the original
principal for the entire period is called as ……………….
(a) simple interest
(b) compound interest
(c) singer interest (d) double interest
8 simple
interest = …….
(a)
P×R×T/100
(b)P×A×R/10
(c)P×R×T/10
(d)P×R×T/1000
9 what
will be the simple interest on Rs 12000 for 2 years at 10% per annum.
(a) Rs 240 (b) Rs 2400(c) Rs1200
(d) Rs 120
10.How
much amount will be repay on rupees 12000 for 2 years at 10% per annum simple
interest
(a) Rs 14400 (b) Rs 1400 (c) Rs 2400 (d) Rs 1200
11 Interest
is not depends on……..
(a) Bank b) rate of interest
(c)
period (d) principal
12 The
sum borrowed is called as
(a) compound interest (b) rate of interest (c)
principal (d) simple interest
13 Principal
together with interest is called as
(a) compound interest
(b) simple interest
(c) amount (d) principal
14 What is the rate of interest for rupees 3000
amount to rupees 5600 in 5 years?
(a) 6% per annum
(b) 17.3 3% per aannum
(c) 9% per annum
(d) 10% per annum
15. Find
simple interest on rupees 10000 at 10% per annum for 2 years
(a) 3150 2.5
(b) 3500 12.5
(c) 2000
(d) 3500
16 Find the compound interest on rupees 15625
for 9 month at 16% per annum compounded quarterly
(a) Rs 1951 (b) Rs 1950
(c) Rs
1500 (d)Rs 1900
17 For the
interest compounded annually
(a)
A= P(1+r/100)^n
(b)
A=P(1+r/100)
(c)
A=P(1+ r/100)^3
(d)
P×R×T/100
18 If period =
9 month principal = 5000 ,rate of
interest= 12% find simple interest
(a) Rs450 (b) Rs550 (c) 650(d) 600
19 If
simple interest = 500, rate of interest=
10% per annum ,period 1 year , find principal
(a) 2000
(b) 3000 (c) 5000 (d) 6000
20 If
rupees 2400 amount to rupees 2760 at simple interest in 3 years find the rate
of interest
(a) 6%
(b) 5% (c) 9% (d) 10%
21 Find
rate of interest if principal 5000,
amount =10000, period 10 year and
(a) 7.2%(b) 8%(c)
10% (d) 9%
22 Formula
for compound Interest half yearly…..
(a)A=P(1+r/100)^n
(b) A=P(1+r/100)^2n
(c) A=P(1+r/100)^3n
(d)
A=P(1+r/100)^5n
23 Principal
=
(a) simple interest×100/rate of interest×time
(b) simple interest×100/rate of interest× 1000
(c) simple interest×100/rate of interest× 10 (d) simple interest×100/rate of
interest× 100
24 Kabir paid rupees 9600 as interest on a loan
he took 5 years ago at 16% rate of simple interest what was the amount he took
as loan
(a) 16400
(b) 12000
(c) 12500
(d) 18000
25 Find the principal when simple interest Rs
192 rate of interest 6% per annum time 4 years
(a) Rs 800(b) Rs600
(c) Rs
3000
26 Find Simple interest if principal is Rs640 rate of
interest 12.5% per annum time 6 month
(a) Rs 40 (b) Rs50 (c) Rs360 (d) Rs370
27 Find
Simple interest if P= 2050 R=10% ,t= 5years
(a) Rs 1025 (b) 1000
(c) 400 (d) 300
28. Find
the simple interest principal = 10,000
rate of interest 18 % per annum time = 7
years
(a)
13000 (b) 12600(c) 11000
(d) 10,000
29 At what rate percent annum will a sum of money
double itself in 6 year
(a) 16.66%(b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 30%
30 Principal
= rupees 6400 rate of interest 6% time =2
years find amount
(a) 7618(b) 7168(c) 3000(d) 2000
31.
Dinesh deposit and amount of rupees 65802 obtain simple interest at 14 % per
annum for 4 years what total amount will then get at the end of 4 years
(a) Rs
102648 (b) Rs 103656
(c) Rs102376 (d) Rs 128649
33. The size of each payment made for an annuity is
called the……
(a) installment(b) simple interest (c)
compound interest (d) principal
34. The total time between the first payment till
the last payment
(a) size of time (b) term of an annuity(c) present value(d)
future value
35 On
the basis of the time of periodic payments types of annuity……
(a)two types (b)three types
(c) four type(d)five type
36. The periodic payment is done at the end of
each period
(a) annuity due (b) ordinary annuity (c)
simple annuity
(d) contingent annuity
39. This is the annuity in which the payments are
done at the start of each period
(a) annuity due(b)
ordinary annuity (c) contingent annuity (d) annual annuity
40……… is
an interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals of
time
(a) sinking
fund(b) mutual fund (c) equity funds (d) debts
funds
41.One
can have entities in which the payments are to be made forever such entities
are called
(a) perpetuities(b) certain annuity(c)
future value (d) present value
42 The
time between two successive payments it is called the
(a) closed
time(b) matured time
(c)
payment period (d) term of an Annuity
43. A series of equal payments made at equal
intervals of time is called the…..
(a) annuity(b) simple interest(c)
compound interest (d) principal
44 Interest =…………
(a) amount- principal (b) amount +principal
(c) amount ×principal (d) amount ÷principal
45 Rate
of Interest =……….
(a) a) simple interest×100/ rate of
interest×time
(b) simple interest×100/rate of interest×principal
(c) simple interest×100/rate of interest×10
(d) simple interest×100/rate of interest×100
46 on
what sum the Simple interest for 3 years at 5% per annum amount to Rs.150
(a) Rs.2000(b)Rs 1000 (c) Rs 1050(d)Rs
2020
47 Find
the time when principal=Rs 9540. SI=Rs 1908 and rate of interest=8%Pa
.(a) 2.5 years (b)3.5 years (c) 4 years(d)5
years
48 In
what time will Rs 72 become Rs.81 at25/4% per annum Simple interest?
(a)2 years (b)3
years (c)4 years
(d)5 years
49 In what
time will Rs 3300 becomes Rs 3399 at 6% per annum interest compounded
half-yearly
(a)6 months (b) 1
years
(c) 3 month(d)4 months
50 Find the Simple interest if principal= 5000 rate
of interest= 10%, time= 2 years
(a)1000 (b)100 (c)4000 (d)500
CLASS:
F.Y.B.M.S
SUB : Business Environment
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1)Business is a form of
___________activity
a) Economics b)
Non economics c) social d) human
2)________industry
consists of any operations that
remove metals mineral
and aggregates from the earth.
a) Primary b) Genetic c)
Secondary d) Extractive
3)_________is a public
corporation
a) ECGC b) MIC
c) IOC d) Ministry of Finance.
4)_______includes trade
and aid-to-trade.
a) Non-industry b)
industry c) commerce d) employment
5)The basic of business
is________.
a) Profit earning b)
Profit reduction c) Profit maximisation d) buying and selling
6)________removes
hindrances in the smooth flow of goods
from the producers to consumers.
a) Transport b)
Trade c) Aid-to-trade d) Commerce
7)________firms
have minimum government regulations.
a)
Sole Proprietorship b) Partnership c) Joint Hindu family d) Government
8)In
case of partnership firm the financial ability
Of partner’s is_________
a) Limited
b)
divided c) unlimited d) flexible
9)
Business environment is__________
a)
static b) multi-faceted c) difficult d) simple to understand
10)
Environment is___________part of business.
a) integral
b) unique c) unrelated d) separable
11)The
analysis of the internal environment helps to
Identity
strengths and ________of the firm.
a) Opportunity b)
Threats c) weaknesses d) Opinion
12)The
analysis of the external environment helps to
Identity_________and
threats from the environment.
a) Opportunities
b)
Risks c) strengths d) Interest
13)Factors
affecting organisation in macro environment are
Known
as ___________
a) SWOT
b) SWDC c) SMART d) PESTEL
14) Unfavourable
changes in the business environment bring
________
to the business.
a) Habits
b) Opportunities c) threats d) strengths
15)
Value system, mission and objectives are the factors of
__________environment.
a) micro
b) external c) macro d) internal
16)
Customers, competitors and suppliers are the components
Of ________environment.
a)
social b) external c) internal d) cultural
17)_________
is the moral fabrics of the society.
a)
culture b) ethics c) beliefs d) values
18)
Industrial policy is part of _________ environment.
a)
political b) legal c) economic d) demographic
19)The
members of the society include__________
a)
shareholders b) Media c) general public d) Medicine
20)_______
refers to the value of a brand.
a)
brand position b) brand equity c) brand personality d) brand Image
21)
Fundamental rights are included in the_________
For
the development of the personality.
a) Character b) Constitution of India c) warrants
d) command
22)
Human, physical and financial resources are the
Components
of _________environment.
a) Political
b) internal c) economic d) social
23)
Economy is _______organisation.
a)
culture-base b) Man-made c) environment base d) production made
24) Economic
environment means all ________ factors affix on
Overall
business.
a) Production
b) Non-Economic c) Economic d) distribution
25) In
capitalist economy more importance is given to________.
a) production
b) customers c) Public d) competitors
26)
The state is to secure__________for the promotion of
Welfare
of the people.
a) Public
offer b) distribution offer c) social offer d) demand offer
27)
Socialist economy is for reducing_______
a) public sector b) private sector c) development
d) inequality
28) No
person shall be compelled to pay ________for the
Promotion
of any religion.
a) Rights
b) Tax c) offer d) Incentives
29)
Mix economy is combination of private and________
Sector.
a) Local
b) Capital c) social d) public
30) Taxation
is measure source of _________revenue.
a)
legal b) social c) government d) political
31) Indian
Constitution was passed in the_________.
a)1947
b)1950 c)1949 d)1951
32)
Sunrise sector are _________faster in the near future.
a) developing
b) increasing c) declining d) reducing
33)
Government of India act was introduced in ______.
a)
1938 b)1937 c) 1935 d) 1947
34)
Socialist economy is for _______ sector.
a) public
b) private c) social d) capital
35)
Economic system is the system of ________.
a)
Public b) production c) Private d) Government
36)
Capitalist economy is for ________sector.
a) Private
b) Public c) social d) local
37) Internal
environment includes________resources.
a) Artificial b) Natural c) government d) Organizational
38)
Demographic environment relates to _________.
a) Human
population b) social environment c) natural environment d) Economic
environment
39)
Micro environment includes ___________intermediaries.
a) fiscal
b) channel c) RTO d) WTO
40)
Legal environment includes__________.
a)
Society b) Laws c) ecology d) politics
41)
The factories act was introduced in _______.
a)
1955 b) 1999 c) 1948 d)1949
42)
WTO is part of___________ environment.
a)
legal b) international c) political d) cultural
43)
The consumer protection act was registered in _________
a)1999
b) 1986 c) 1985 d)1987
44)
Indian partnership act was passed in the year_________.
a)1924
b)1934 c)1932 d) 1956
45)
Natural environment relates to__________.
a)
People b) literacy c) Land d) policies
46)
The head of joint Hindu family business is called as_________.
a)
proprietor b) Investor c) Director d) Karta
47)The
firm is a part of ________environment.
a) Internal
b) external c) cultural d) social
48) A sole
proprietorship has________ owner/owners.
a)
one b) two c) five d) three
49)
Internal trade is also known as ________ trade.
a) home
trade b) Foreign trade c) wholesale trade d) commerce
50)
The production side of business is referred as __________
a)
Industry b) Banking c) Commerce d) finance
SUB : FOUNDATION COURSE
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1. The
term _____ refers to freedom to business enterprises from excessive government
control.
a. privatization b. liberalization c. disinvestment d. globalization
2.
Economic liberalisation was a bold decision by the Prime Minister _________.
a.
Rajiv Ghandhi b. Narsimha Rao c. Atal
Bihari Bajpai d. Narendra Modi
3. The term ______ implies reduction in the role of the
public sector and increases the role of the private sector in business and
non-business activities.
a.
liberalization b. privatization c. disinvestment d. globalization
4. In
the state of __________, the number of farmer’s suicides is the highest.
a.
Karnataka b.
Madhya Pradesh c.
Maharashtra d.
Chhattisgarh
5. _________ means integrating the national
economy with the world’s economy.
a.
Disinvestment b.
Privatization c. Globalization d. Liberalization
6. As
per the New Industrial Policy, 1991, at present there are only ______
industries reserved for public sector.
a. Six b. three c.
five d. four
7.
______ is the process of selling government equity in PSUs to private parties.
a.
Disinvestment
b. Privatization
c. Globalization d.
Liberalization
8. __________ means movement or shift of people from one
place to another.
a. Disinvestment b. Migration c.
Globalization d.
Liberalization
9. ______ refers to coerced movement of people away from
their home.
a. Regional Migration
b. Local Migration c. Mass Migration d.
Forced Migration
10. The government of India has given autonomy to the Board
of Directors of PSUs in _____.
a. selection b.
recruitment c.
training d. decision-making
11. ____ is working with farmers by corporate firms and
sharing the rewards.
a.
Contract farming b.
Corporate farming c. Government
farming d. Private farming
12. As per the New Industrial Policy, 1991, licensing is
required in _____ industries.
a. Six b. Seven c.
Five d. Eight
13.____ is undertaken by large corporative firms either by
buying the land or taking the land on lease basis.
a. Contract farming b. Corporate farming c. Government farming d. Private farming
14. Article 15 of the Constitution provides for ___
equality and equal access to public areas. a.
legal b. judicial c. social d. religious
15. Humans rights are derived from the principle of ____
law.
a. government b. natural c. judicial d.
human
16. The UDHR consists of a Preamble and ______ articles
highlighting human rights and freedoms entitled to everyone in the world.
a. 15 b.
20 c.10 d. 30
17. ________ rights aim at personal good of an individual
as well as that of the community. a. Natural b. Fundamental
c. Enforced d. Religious
18. Human rights in a more specified and well-defined
manner came with the signing of _____ in 1215.
a. UDHR b.
theory of the natural law c. Magna Carta d. The Natural Rights Duty
19. Abolition of ___ is provided under Article 17 of the
Indian Constitution.
a. Caste b.
Child labour c. Untouchability d. racism
20.____ of the Constitution abolishes the practice of the
untouchability.
a.Article14 b. Article 17 c. Article 18 d.
Article 16
21. ____ empowers the citizens to move to the court of law
in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.
a. Cultural and Educational Rights b. Right to Speech c. Right to Education d.
Right to Constitutional Remedies
22. Article 21(A) has made ______ education as a
fundamental right.
a. higher b.
secondary c. primary c.
management
23. _____ has made primary education as a fundamental
right.
a.
Cultural and Educational Rights b. Right to Speech c. Right to Educationd.
Right to Equality
24. The objective of the Right to Freedom of Religion is to
sustain the principle of _____
a.
secularism b.
socialism c. humanism d. regionalism
25. The ______ are defined as basic human freedoms which
every Indian citizen has right to enjoy for proper and harmonious development
of personality.
a. Directive Principle of State Policy b.
Fundamental Rights c. Human Rights d. Natural Rights
26. Human Rights are those conditions of ________ life
without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best.
a. political b.
economical c. social d. personal
27. The National Rights theory first germinated in _______ Theory
of Ethics as the basis for politics.
a. Grotius b.
Locke c. Hobbes d. Dr. Ambedkar
28. Human rights have _____ applications.
a. limited b.
maximum c.universal d. most
29. ______ law can be traced to the thoughts of Sophocles
and Aristotle.
a. personal b. natural c. human d. social
30. Globalisation has improved in the living
structure of
a. All the
people b. Workers in developing countries c. People in
developed countries d. No people
31. Which Indian industries have been hit
by globalisation?
a.
Cement b. Jute c. Toy
making d. Information Technology (IT)
32. Which organisations strain on the liberalisation of foreign
investment and foreign trade?
a. International Monetary Fund b.
World Health Organisation
c. World Trade Organisation d. International Labour
Organisation
33. Tax on imports can be treated as
a. Collateral b. Trade Barriers c.
Foreign Traded d. Terms of Trade
34. The main reason behind MNCs investments
are ______
a. To benefit foreign countries
b. To provide financial support to the country’s government
c. For the welfare of underprivileged people.
d. To
increase the assets and earn profits.
35. Which institute
supports investments and foreign trade in India?
a. International Monetary Fund (IMF) b. World Trade Organisation (WTO)
c. World Bank d. International Labour
Organisation (ILO)
36. When did the government remove the
barriers for investment and investment in India?
a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992 d) 1993
37. Rapid
integration or interconnection between countries is known as:
a. Privatisation b. Globalisation c. Liberalisation d. Socialisation
38. Globalisation has led to improvement in living
conditions:
a. of all the people b. of people
in the developed countries c. of
workers in the developing countries d. no people.
39. World Trade Organisation (WTO) was started at the
initiative of which one of the following group of countries?
a. Rich countries b. Poor countries c. Developed countries d. developing countries
40. An MNC is a company that owns or controls production in
____________
a. one country b. more than one countryc. only developing countries d. only
developed countries
41. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government
is called ________.
a.
Liberalisation b.
Investment c.
Favourable Trade d. Free trade
42. Companies who set up production units in the
Special Economic Zones (SEZs) do not have to pay taxes for an initial period
of:
a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 4 years d. 10
years
43. Investment made by MNC’s are termed as ________.
a. Indigenous investment b. Foreign Investment
c. Entrepreneur’s investment d.
Direct investment
44. What was the main channel connecting countries in the
past?
a Labour b Religion c Technology d Trade
45. ‘The impact of Globalisation has not been fair.’ Who
among the following people have not benefitted from globalisation?
a Well off consumers b Small producers and workers
c Skilled
and educated producers d Large wealthy producers
46. Which Indian company was bought over by Cargill Foods—a
large American MNC? Pick out the name from the alternatives provided
a Amul b Fun Foods Ltd. c Agro Tech Foods Ltd. d Parakh Foods
47. In which year did the government decide to remove
barriers on foreign trade and investment in India?
a 1993 b 1992 c 1991 d 1990
48. Which of the following industries have been hard
hit by foreign competition?
a Dairy
products b Leather industry c Cloth industry d Vehicle industry
49. Who is the current chairman of the
National Human Rights Commission?
a Justice A.S. Anand b Justice
H.L. Dattuc Justice S. Rajendra Babu d
Justice K. Balakrishnan
50. When changes have been
made in the National Human Rights Commission Act?
a 2001 b
1999 c 2006 d
2016
CLASS:
S.Y. B.A.F -IV SEM REGULAR
SUB: Industrial Law
.
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. Before the industrial disputes act was
implemented in the year 1947, which act took care of the industrial disputes?
a. Trade Disputes Act, 1929
b. Royal Commission on Labour, 1934
c. Labour Management Relations Act, 1947
d. None of the above
2. What is the penalty for closure without notice
a. Imprisonment
of 6 months or fine of maximum Rs. 5000 or both
b. Imprisonment
of 12 months or fine of maximum Rs. 5000 or both
c. Imprisonment
of 6 months or fine of maximum Rs. 10000 or both
d. Imprisonment
of 12 months or fine of maximum Rs. 5000 or both
3. Which of the following statements about the
definition of industry as given in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not
right?
a. It means any business, trade, undertaking,
manufacture or calling of employers
b. It includes any calling, service, employment,
handicraft or industrial occupation or avocation of workmen
c. This definition has been revised in 1982 in a
leading case of 1978
d. The revised definition has been implemented after
due notification.
4. Which of the following is wwrong
a. In retrenchment no employment relationship
remains
b. In strikes and Lock outs the employment
relationship continues
c. In Lay off employment relationship is terminated.
d. In closure there is no business and employment
relationship exists.
5. ‘Award’
under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
A. Not interim determination of labour court
B. Not arbitration award under Section 10A
C. Not final determination of labour court
D. Not final determination of arbitration award
under section 10A
a. All statements are true.
b. a and d are true.
c. b is true.
d. All statements are wrong
6. First come last go and last come first go is the
principle of
a. Lay off
b. Retrenchment
c. Closure
d. Dissmissal
7. The dispute of individual workman is deemed to be
industrial dispute if the dispute or difference is connected with or arising
out of the following where no other workman nor any union of workman is a party
to the dispute.
a. Grievance of an individual workman.
b. Discharge of an individual workman.
c. Discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or otherwise
termination of services of an individual workman
d. Dismissal of an individual workman.
8. Award under the Industrial Disputes Act is
a. Not interim determination of labour court
b. Not arbitration award under section 10 A
c. Not final determination of the Labour court
d. Not final determination of arbitration award
under section 10A
9. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, which of the
following cannot be considered as an industrial dispute?
a. When employer fails to keep his verbal promises
b. When closure is a pretence
c. When demand made for alteration of conditions of
service of employees in a cooperative society
d. When the lock-out is in disguise of closure
10. ______ means any person including an apprentice
employed in any industry to do skilled, unskilled, technical, operational,
clerical, supervisory work for hire or reward
a. Manager
b. Workman
c. Employee
d. Profession
11. Which one of the following is not a machinery for
settlement of Industrial Disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
a. Collective Bargaining
b. Conciliation Officer
c. Board of Conciliation
d. Labour Court
12. Adolesent means a person who has completed his
____ year of agebut has not completed ___ year of age
a. 14, 18
b. 15, 18
c. 07, 10
d. 15, 20
13. Which of the following statements about the
Grievance Redressal Machinery given under the Industrial not true?
a. Every industrial establishment employing 20 or more
workmen shall have one or more Grievance Redressal Committee.
b. Grievance Redressal Committee can resolve any
dispute arising in the industrial establishment.
c. It is a bipartite committee with equal number of
members representing the employer and workmen.
d. There is a 45 days time limit from the date of
written application to complete the proceedings.
14. Which one of the following is not a welfare
provision under the Factories Act 1948
a. Canteen
b. Creches
c. Beverages
d. Drinking Water
15. Which of the following institutions are
considered ‘industry’?
a. Posts and Telegraph Department
b. Central Institute of Fisheries
c. Construction and maintenance of National and
State Highways
d. Dock Labour Board
16. Which of the following constitute Manufacturing
process as per Factories Act, 1948?
a. Receiving news on reels in a teleprinter
b. Exhibition of flim process
c. Cutting of Rubber in a rubber factory
d. All of the above
17. Absence of profit motive or gainful objective is
_______ for industry
a. Mandatory
b. Irrelevant
c. Basic Nature
d. Partially required
18. Whenever a new manager is appointed, the occupier
shall send notice to the Inspecor within
a. 7 days
b. 30days
c. 3 months
d. 1 year
19. An establishment was being operated without
introduction to any capital, whether it will be considered as industry?
a. No it will not be an Industry
b. It will be an Industry once capital is introduced
c. It is an industry even without capital
d. None of the above
20. The floor should be thoroughly cleaned by washing
and disinfectant _____ as per the provisions of the Factories Act
a. Every day
b. Twice a week
c. Once in a week
d. None of the above
21. Mr. Himanshu was a member of a trade union. A
part of the trade union wants to raise an industrial dispute against AB Corp
Ltd. However they are not directly related to AB Corp ltd. They want to raise
this dispute on behalf of their members in AB Corp Ltd. What are the provisions
related to it?
a. Mr. Himanshu can raise the dispute
b. Mr. Himanshu should be in majority to raise the
dispute
c. Mr. Himanshu cannot raise the dispute as he is
not substantially interested
d. Mr. Himanshu should be in management of AB Corp
ltd to raise a dispute.
22. Section 27 of the Factories Act 1948 provides for
prohibition of employment of woman and children near ______
a. Any plant and machinery
b. Cotton openers
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
23. What are not the ingredients of triple tests to
be applied for determining an industry
a. Systematic Activity
b. Co-operation between employer and employee
c. Production of goods and services
d. Employment of contact labour
24. Is actual injury to health necessary, if the dust
or fume by reason of manufacturing process is given off in such quantity that
it is injurious or offensive
a. Yes, actual injury is required
b. No, actual injury is not required
c. Partial or total disablement is required
d. Admission to hospital is required
25. Which of the following strikes are not called as
primary strikes?
a. Stay In
b. Tool down
c. Go slow
d. Pen down
26. Minimum working space for each worker is ____
space per eorker in every workroom
a. 4.2 cubic meter
b. 14.2 cubic meter
c. 24.2 cubic meter
d. 44.2 cubic meter
27. Cessation of work in the support of the demands
of the workmen belonging to other employer is called as ________
a. Hunger strike
b. Sympathetic strike
c. Go slow strike
d. Work to rule
28. Which of the following committee shall be
responsible for hazardous substance
a. Managing committee
b. Site Appraisal committee
c. Welfare committee
d. Audit committee
29. When can a stike be unjustified?
a. Demands are fair and reasonable
b. Carried in a peaceful manner
c. Demands are bonafide
d. Acts of violence or sabotage happens
30. The factories employing more than 1000 workers
are required to submit their plans for approval to
a. Deputy Chief Inspector of Factories
b. Joint Chief Inspector of Factories
c. Chief Inspector of Factories
d. Additional Chief Inspector of Factories
31. Which of the following is not correct related to
go slow strike?
a. Deliberately delaying of production by workmen
b. Going on a mass casual leave under a common
understanding
c. Serious form of misconduct
d. Reducing the output while remain on full wages
32. What is the maximum number of hours that a child
can be employed in a factory as pe rthe factories act?
a. 3 and a ½ hours in any day
b. 4 and a ½ hours in any day
c. 5 and a ½ hours in any day
d. 6 and a ½ hours in any day
33. Which of the following is retrenchment?
a. Voluntary retirement of the workmen
b. Retirement of the workmen or reaching the age of
superannuation if the contract of the employment between the employer and the
workman concerned contains a stipulation in that behalf
c. Termination of the service of the workman as a
result of the non renewal of the contarct of employment on its expiry
d. Termination of the service for carrying out
activities permitted in premises of establishment
34. The certificate of fitness to be given by
a. Certified Surgeon
b. Company Secretary
c. Occupier
d. A person with knowledge of medicine
35. Which of the following are not valid reasons for
an employer declaring Lay off
a. Financial stringency
b. Shortage of coal, power or raw materials
c. Accumulation of stocks
d. Breakdown of machinery
36. Cutting of wood or converting woods into planks
constitute into manufacturing process
a. Yes
b. No
c. Partially
d. Never
37. Every workman whose name appears in the muster
rolls of the industrial establishment and presents himself at the time
appointed for the purpose and is not given employment by the employer within
____ hours of his so presenting himself shall be deemed to have been laid off
for that day within the meaning of this Act
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
38. Whether seasonal factories will be considered as
a factory under the factories act
a. Yes
b. No
c. Partially
d. Never
39. Average pay means the average of the wages
payable to the workmen and includes
a. In the case of monthly paid workman, in the three
complete calendar months
b. In the case of weekly wages paid to workman, in
the 4 complete weeks
c. In the case of daily paid workmen, in the 12 full
working days preceding the date on which the average pay becomes payable
d. All of the above
40. In the case of Ravi Shankar vs. State of
Rajasthan, it was held that Factories Act is a _______ legislation
a. Social
b. Economic
c. Necessary
d. Manufacturing related
41. Section 3 of the Act provides that the ________
may be general or special order require the employer to constitute in the
prescribed manner a works committee in industrial establishments
a. Appropriate Govt
b. Commissioner
c. High Court
d. Inspector
42. Transmission machinery for the purpose of
factories act mean
a. Pulley
b. Shaft
c. Clutch
d. All of the above
43. Public utility service means
a. Any railway service or any transport service for
the carriage of passengers or goods by air
b. Any service in, or in connection with the working
of, any major port or dock
c. Any postal, telegraph or telephone service
d. All of the above
44. Works committee to be constituted by appropriate
govt, where _______ or more workmen are employed or have been employed on any
working day in the preceding 12 months
a. 20
b. 50
c. 70
d. 100
45. Factory includes premises where manufacturing is
carried on with aid of power employing _____ workers and without aid of power
employing ______ workers
a. 10 or less; 20 or more
b. 10 or less; 20 or less
c. 10 or more; 20 or more
d. 10 or more; 100 or more
46. A Labour court shall consist of _____ persons
only to be appointed by the appropriate govt.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
47. An adult worker whether male or female shall not
be required or allowed to work in a factory for more than ___ in any day
a. 8 hours
b. 9 hours
c. 10 hours
d. 12 hours
48. Who is qualified to be a Presiding officer of the
National Tribunal?
a. He is, or has been a Judge of High Court
b. He has, for a period of not less than 3 years,
been a district judge
c. He has, for a period of not less than 3 years
been an additional district judge
d. He has been the presiding officer of the Labour
court
49. Which of the following shall not be considered as
ordinary rate of wages
a. Basic wages
b. Allowances which include the cash equivalent
c. House rent allowance
d. Concessional sale to workers
50. Lockout is always from the _______ side
a. Employee
b. Manager
c. Head of Department
d. Employer
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