FYBSC IT - SEM II - MCQ

 

MCQ – Multiple Choice Questions

 

SAMPLE MCQ

 

AS PER 

UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI 

SYLLABUS

 

 

Will be helpful to regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online examinations of SEM II, SEM  IV and SEM V class of students.

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ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD

CLASS: F.Y.B.SCIT-II SEM REGULAR

 

SUB :OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING LANGAUGE

 

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1. ) Which of the following language was developed as the first purely object programming language?

 a. Smalltalk   b. C++   c. Kotlin  d. Java

2) Who developed object-oriented programming?

a.    Adele Goldberg  b. Dennis Ritchie  c.  Alan Kay d. Andrea Ferro

3) Which of the following is not an OOPS concept?

a. Encapsulation  b. Polymorphism  c.  Exception  d. Abstraction

4) Which feature of OOPS described the reusability of code?

a.  Abstraction  b. Encapsulation  c. Polymorphism  d. Inheritance

5) Which of the following language supports polymorphism but not the classes?

   a. C++ programming language     b.  Java programming language

   c.Ada programming language   d. C# programming language

6) Which among the following feature is not in the general definition of OOPS?

a.    Modularity                             b.  Efficient Code  

c. Code reusability                     d. Duplicate or Redundant Data

 

7) Which feature of OOPS derives the class from another class?

a.    Inheritance  b. Data hiding  c. Encapsulation  d. Polymorphism

8)A single program of OOPS contains _______ classes?

 a. Only 1   b.Only 999   c. Only 100  d. Any number

9) Which operator from the following can be used to illustrate the feature of polymorphism?

a. Overloading <<  b. Overloading &&  c. Overloading | |  d. Overloading +=

10) Which two features of object-oriented programming are the same?

     a. Abstraction and Polymorphism features are the same

     b.Inheritance and Encapsulation features are the same

    c.Encapsulation and Polymorphism features are the same

d.    Encapsulation and Abstraction

11)  Which header file is required by the C++ programming language to use the   

         OOPS concept?

     a. stdio.h      

     b. iostream.h

     c. stdlib.h

      d.We can easily use the OOPS concepts in c++ programs without using    

       any header file.

 

 

12) Which of the following definition is incorrect for polymorphism?

    a. Polymorphism helps in redefining the same functionality

    b. Polymorphism concept is the feature of object-oriented programming

        (OOP)

c.    It always increases the overhead of function definition

d.    Ease in the readability of the program

13)  Which among the following cannot be used for the concept of polymorphism?

    a. Static member function             b. Constructor Overloading

    c. Member function overloading   d.Global member function

14)Which function best describe the concept of polymorphism in programming languages?

a.  Class member function   b. Virtual function

 c. Inline function               d. Undefined function

15)  Which member function is assumed to call first when there is a case of using function overloading or abstract class?

 a.  Global function               b. Local function

c. Function with lowest priority  d. Function with the highest priority

16) Which of the following OOP concept is not true for the C++ programming language?

     a.A class must have member functions

     b.C++ Program can be easily written without the use of classes

    c. At least one instance should be declared within the C++ program

    d.C++ Program must contain at least one class

17)  What is the extra feature in classes which was not in the structures?

     a. Member functions                    b. Data members

     c. Public access specifier            d. Static Data allowed

18) How many types of polymorphism in the C++ programming language?

     a. Three types of polymorphism  b. Two types of polymorphism

      c. Five types of polymorphism    d. Four types of polymorphism

19)  Which of the following feature is also known as run-time binding or late binding?

  a. Dynamic typing  b. Dynamic loading  c. Dynamic binding  d.Data hiding

20)  Which of the following OOP concept binds the code and data together and keeps them secure from the outside world?

 a.Polymorphism    b. Inheritance  c.  Abstraction  d. Encapsulation

21)  Which member of the superclass is never accessible to the subclass?

    a. Public member                b. Protected member 

    c.  Private member         d) Processed member

22)  What is the size of a class?

 a. Sum of the size of all inherited variables along with the variables of the same class

b. The size of the class is the largest size of the variable of the same class

c. Classes in the programming languages do not have any size

d. Sum of the size of all the variables within a class

23)  The object cannot be________?

 a.passed by copy                                        b.passed as function                               

 c. passed by value                                       d. passed by reference

24)  Which among the following feature does not come under the concept of  

        OOPS?

  a. Data binding   b.  Data hiding  c. Platform independent  d.Message passing

25)  The combination of abstraction of the data and code is viewed in________.

   a. Inheritance  b. Object  c. Class  d. Interfaces

26)  The principle of abstraction___________

   a. is used to achieve OOPS           b. is used to avoid duplication

   c. Use abstraction at its minimum   d. is used to remove longer codes

27) following which is not keyword used in C++

a.asm       b. private        c. struct         d. which

28) ___________ a user defined data type in C++

   a. enum                 b. for               c. while                     d.asm

29)  ::  is _____ operator 

a) size of operator                b) address of operator

c) logical not operator                     d)scope resolution

30) following which is  binary operator

a) size of operator                b) address of operator

c) logical not operator         d) arithmetic operator

31) _____ functions are  used to display a character on the monitor

a) putch                    b) puts                        c) gets                       d) getch

 

 

32)break, continue, goto are _____

a) control statement                         b) branching statement

c)  manipulator statement   d) parameterised statement

33) strut structname_name

{

Datatype variable name_ 1

Datatype variable name_ 2

};    Is syntax of

a.for                b.structure c.pointer         d. for loop

34) following which  methods not used  for defining classes in C++

a) Internally defined functions                   b) Externally defined functions

c)Inline functions                                          d) External functions 

35)  if a function is to be defined outside the  class, but still be treated as a internally defined function then such function has to be made_________

a) Internally defined functions                   b) Externally defined functions

c)Inline functions                                       d) External functions

36 ) Constructor has to be defined only in the ______ visibility of a class

 a.Public member b. Protected member c Private member d. Processed member

37) _______ refers to creating  multiple functions with same name but different parameter

a) function overriding                                  b) function overloading

 c) function passing                         d) Inheritance

38) ______ is type of dynamic binding

a) Virtual function                         b) constructor overloading

c) function overloading                               d) operator overloading

39) if a base class function and derived class function have same name and same parameter then it is said to be _______

a) function overriding                               b) function overloading

c) function passing                          d) Inheritance

40) virtual return_type function_name()= 0 is syntax of ___

a) Virtual function                                        b) pure virtual function

c) virtual base class                                     d) pointer to object

41) ____ is address of opearator

a) *                              b) {                   c) #                d) &

42)  if x= 3

then

y= ~x

will result in y having  value of ____

a)3                  b) -3                            c) 4                             d) -4

43) IDE stands for________

a) Independent Development Environment

b) Integrated Development Environment

c) Independent Deployment  Environment

d) Integrated Deployment Environment

44) ______ operator returns the value of the variable added with one and stores the result in the variable itself

a) increment(++)    b)decrement(--)    c) bitwise(-)    d) unary minus(-)

45) ________ statements transfer the control to different places in the program

    a) Control statement                               b) Branching statement

    c) nested statement                                d)looping statement

46) When the member functions of a class are defined inside the class itself they are called as ___________

a) Internally defined functions               b) Externally defined functions

c)Inline functions                                                  d) External functions

47) To create many object of a class we can use the _____

a) string                      b) pointer                   c) pointer to object            d) structure

48) a ____ is used to destroy the memory allocated by the constructor

a) Parameterized Constructor                     b) Destructor                                            

 c) Default constructor                                   d) Constructor

49) Method overloading is type of ___

  a) Static binding b) dynamic binding  c)Class binding d) Object binding

50) Private, Public, Protected are _____

a) Function b) Operator c) Access specifier d) Objects

CLASS: F.Y.B.SCIT-II SEM REGULAR

 

SUB : GREEN COMPUTING

 

 

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1)    The process in which  metals and plastics must be separated, and then the circuit boards are shredded to separate the aluminium, iron, and copper from the valuable precious metals, such as silver. a)    Refurbishing b)   Recycling c)    Emart d)    RoHS

2)    Full form of  StEP a)    Super Electronic Program b)   Solving the E-waste Problem c)    Solving Electronic Program d)    Step toward Ewaste Program

3)    StEP is based on ____ principles. a)    ONE b)    TWO c)    FOUR d)   FIVE

4)     BAN stands for a)    Basel Action Network b)    Ban All Network c)    Basel Act Network d)    Baseline all Network

5)    BAN is active on a number of campaigns, including the following: a)    Refurbishing b)    Recycling c)    blade servers d)   E-Waste Stewardship Project

6)    Green computing is related to a)    keeping green environment by not using electricity b)    growing  trees c)    not cutting the trees d)   making your computer toxic free

7 EPEAT stands for a)    Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool b)   Exact  Product Environmental Assessment Tool c)    Electronic Process Environmental Assessment Tool d)   Electronic Product Electrical Assessment Tool

8     With the ________program, consumers can bring up to 10 computers to be recycled at no charge to them. a)    economisers b)    pay back c)    byteback d)    refurbhish

9     The European Union leads the world with its e-waste management __directives. a)    Byteback b)   WEEE and its RoHs c)    EPAT d)    EEE

10  WEEE Directive Stands for a)    The Waste Electrical and Electronic Equipment Directive b)   The Water Electrical and Electronic Equipment Directive c)    The Waste Electronic Equipment Directive d)   The Waste Electrical and Electronic Environment Directive

11  RoHS stands for a)    Right of Hazardous Substances b)   Restriction of Hazardous Substances Directive c)    Recycle of hazardous substances d)    Rate of high solid

12  A typical computer monitor may contain more than ___lead by weight, much of which is in the lead glass of the cathode ray tube (CRT) a)    6 percent b)    60 percent c)    61 percent d)    66 percent

 

13  Gartner estimates that PCs ____are discarded by U.S. homes and businesses each day. a)    33,000 b)    233,000 c)    133,000 d)    3,000

14  On average, a thin client uses ___ watts of energy instead of the ___ watts that workstations use a)    15 , 150 b)    150 ,15 c)    15,15 d)    150,150

15  An average desktop PC requires ___ watts just to idle, even with the monitor off. a)    185 b)    285 c)    825 d)   85

16  _____ works to ban waste trade and promote green, toxin-free design of consumer products. a)    ROHS b)   BAN c)    EPEAT d)    WEEE

17  In December 2007,the U.S. Department of Defense, NASA, and the General Services Administration outlined a rule that requires purchases to be compliant with ___   a)    ROHS b)    BAN c)    EPEAT d)    WEEE

18  PBBs stands for  ____ a)    Polybrominated ban b)    Poly bran biphenyls c)    Polybrominated boral d)   Polybrominated biphenyls       19 ____ is a program that is open to companies, governmental organizations, academic institutions, nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), and nonprofit organizations around the world a)    Byteback b)   StEP c)    WEEE d)    ROHS

20 Conducts field research and investigations in developing countries. It also provides photographic and video documentation of e-waste trade a)    ROHS b)   BAN c)    EPEAT d)    WEEE

21 ____ was developed by the Green Electronics Council in Portland, to help institutional purchasers evaluate, compare, and select desktop computers, notebook computers, and monitors based on their environmental attributes. a)     ROHS b)    BAN c)    EPEAT d)    WEEE

22 ____condemns all illegal activities related to e-waste, including illegal shipments and reuse and recycling practices that are harmful to the environment and human health a)    Byteback b)   StEP c)    WEEE d)    ROHS

23 A program working toward an internationally binding treaty on mercury pollution to eliminate its extraction, use, trade, and recycling. To eliminate surplus mercury trade to developing countries. a)    E-Waste Stewardship Project b)    Green Shipbreaking c)    Zero Mercury Campaign d)    Basel Ban Ratifications

24  BAN promotes the ____ globally and works to prevent the weakening of this amendment a)    E-Waste Stewardship Project b)    Green Shipbreaking c)    Zero Mercury Campaign d)   Basel Ban Ratifications

25 A program that ensures hazardous materials have been removed from U.S. government ships prior to export a)    E-Waste Stewardship Project b)   Green Shipbreaking c)    Zero Mercury Campaign d)    Basel Ban Ratifications

26Sellback is done for a)    Cooling effect b)   Power saving c)    polling d)    Hard disk cleaning

27  Economizers can be a)    Air based b)    Sewage based c)    light based d)    fluid based 28 Total  Cooling Needs of  company do not depend on a)    Room Area BTU  ,Windows BTU  ,Total Occupant BTU b)    Economiser used c)    hard drive used d)    database and Datawarehouse

29 Power usage can be checked by a)    IBM Power executive b)    servers c)    Maid d)    thin client

30 Economisers can be optimised by a)    Floor mounted b)    same hot and cold aisle c)    blade servers d)    Green drives

31 Disk drives considering Green Computing a)    RAID b)    SERVERS c)    RECYCLING d)    POLLING

32  _______ device is a US$25 product that you plug into the wall and then plug your computer or monitor into the device. The result is that it will show you how much power your device is using. a)    The Kill A Watt device b)    Polling c)    wifi d)    blade server

33  You can reduce ______your servers use by deploying blade servers and by virtualizing your servers. a)    the amount of energy b)    the amount of money c)    the amount of polling d)    the amount of raid

34  The computer automatically checking to see if a given action has been taken—draws power from idling computers, because it automatically wakes the computer up to check for a given event is known as a)    RAID b)   POLLING c)    VIRTUALISATION d)    BACON PACKET

35  ____are drives that reduce the amount of power they use through a variety of mechanisms, including unloading the heads during idle time to reduce aerodynamic drag. a)    Green environment . b)    Green power c)    Green hard drives d)    Yellow hard drives

36  According to a study by Gartner, ____of datacenters said they will have insufficient power and cooling capacity by 2008—Gartner, November 2006. a)    500 percent b)    150 percent c)    5 percent d)   50 percent

37  Blade servers consume about ___less power than equivalent rack mount servers because multiple servers share common power supplies, cooling fans, and other components a)    10 percent b)    100 percent c)    1 percent d)    110 percent

38  In sleep mode, monitor  typically use ___or less power a)    500 W b)    50 W c)    150 W d)   5 W

39  APs announce their presence at regular intervals by sending a ____. a)    beacon packet b)    back packet. c)    bee packet. d)    bea packet.

40   Estimates state that cooling can account for upward of ___of your IT department’s power usage a)    163 percent b)   63 percent c)    263 percent d)    6 percent

41  BTU stands for a)    British Thermal Units b)    BCC Thermal Units c)    British Threat Units d)    British Treaty Units

42   One kilowatt is the same as ____ BTUs. a)    12 b)    34 c)    3412 d)    32

43  EPA Stands for a)    Environmental Protection Agency b)    Electrical  Protection Agency c)    Environmental Partition Agency d)    Environmental Protection Agreement

44   The goal of the ___task force is to enhance global recycling infrastructures, systems, and technologies while realizing sustainable e-waste-recycling systems. a)     ReCycle b)     WEEE c)     ROHS d)    REFURBISH

45  One way you can cut your electrical bill and make a move toward carbon neutrality is to _____ a)    generate your own server b)   generate your own power c)    generate your own system d)    generate your own economiser

46  ___is a big problem. It represents 2 percent of American landfills, but it accounts for 70 percent of overall toxic waste. a)    Electronic waste b)    Sewage waste c)    Water waste d)    Hard drive waste     47  ____, an industry trade group (www.iaer.org), reports that more than 500 U.S. companies recycle 1.4 million tons of electronics annually a)    The International Association Servers b)    The  Electronics Recyclers c)    The International Association of Electronics Recyclers d)    The Indian Association of Electronics Recyclers

48  The ____limits the amount of human contact with hazardous materials during processing. a)    manual process b)   automation process c)    chaos process d)    ai

49  The first stage of measuring carbon footprints is a)    Define what is included in your carbon footprint. b)    Set your baseline. c)    Track, calculate, and analyze your footprint. d)    Report your results to stakeholders.

50  The last stage of measuring carbon footprints is a)    Define what is included in your carbon footprint. b)    Set your baseline. c)    Track, calculate, and analyze your footprint. d)   Report your results to stakeholders.

 

CLASS : F.Y.Bsc IT -II SEM

 

SUB: Microprocessor Architecture

 

CLASS TEST : 50 QUESTIONS

 

 

1. This unit is used to perform arithmetic operations (+, -, *, / etc) .

a. MPU      b. CPU    c. ALU    d. Memory

2. A binary code, that indicates the operation to be performed is called _______

a. code   b. memory code    c.byte code       d. opcode

3. It is mechanism by which an I/O device or instruction  can suspend the normal execution of the processor.

a. Program      b. Instruction   c. Procedure    d. Interrupt

4. This unit is a control section of microprocessor made up of synchronous sequential logic circuit.

a. Interrupt unit  b. Time and Control unit  c. ALU   d. Memory Unit

5. The bus over which the CPU sends out the address of the memory location is called _____

a. data bus   b. Control bus   c. Address bus  d. I/O bus

6. This bus consists of 8, 16 or 32 parallel lines.

a. data bus   b. Control bus   c. Address bus  d. I/O bus

7. This bus is used for sending control signals to memory and I/O devices.

a. data bus   b. Control bus   c. Address bus  d. I/O bus

8. __________ bus is unidirectional bus.

a. data bus   b. Control bus   c. Address bus  d. I/O bus

9.  _______ bus is bidirectional bus.

a. data bus   b. Control bus   c. Address bus  d. I/O bus

10. 8085 microprocessor is ________ bit processor.

a. 4 bit  b. 8 bit c. 16 bit   d. 32 bit

11. ______________instruction is  non-maskable interrupts in 8085 microprocessor.

a. RST5.5   b.RST 6.5    c. RST 7.5    d. Trap

12. _______ instruction is non-vectored interrupts.

a. a. RST5.5   b.RST 6.5    c. RST 7.5    d. INTR

13. ________ is I/O control instruction in 8085.

a. SID   b. INTR   c. INTA   d. TRAP

14.  _______ are Temporary register in 8085.

a.  WZ   b. BC   c. DE   d. A

15. The Valid general purpose register in 8085.

a. WZ   b. BC  c. A     d. ALU

16. The ________ register is used to store the result in 8085.

a. Accumulator    b. I/O control   c. General purpose   d. Interrupt

17.  There are _________ flag register in 8085.

a.  4    b. 1   c. 5    d. 8

18.  This flag is set whenever there has been carry out of, or a borrow into higher order bit of the result.

a. Z    b. S    c. CY    d. P

19. MSB stands for _____________

a. More single bit        b. Most Significant bit        c. More Significant bit     d. Much Significant bit

20. This flag is set when the result has even parity or odd parity.

a. Z     b. S   c. CY   d. P

21. This flag is set when the result of operation is zero else it is reset.

a. Z     b. S   c. CY   d. P

22. This flag is set when MSB of the result is 1.

a. Z     b. S   c. CY   d. P

23. This register is not accessible to the user.

a. Instruction    b. Program counter    c. Stack Pointer   d. Accumulator

24. This resister is used to hold the address of program memory.

a. Instruction    b. Program counter    c. Stack Pointer   d. Accumulator

25. This is reserved portion of memory where information can be stored or taken back under software control. This memory area is referred to as ______

a. Instruction    b. Program counter    c. Stack Pointer   d. Accumulator

26. ________ refers to the accumulator and flag register when accumulator is the high order register and flag register is the low order register

a. Instruction    b. Program Status Word    c. Stack Pointer   d. Accumulator

27. MOV B,C is ______ byte instruction.

a. 1         b.   2        c. 3          d. 4

28.  MVI B,57H  is ________ byte instruction.

a. 1      b.   2        c. 3          d. 4

29. STA 5600H is ______ byte instruction.

a. 1      b.   2        c. 3          d. 4

30. The ___________is a pictorial representation of various actions and computations that are taken to perform any task in 8085 programing.

a. Graph    b.  Chart   c. FlowChart    d. diagram

31.  ______ symbol is Star and Stop unit in Flowchart.

a. Circle   b. Rectangle  d. Oval  d. Diamond

32. This cycle consists of a fetch cycle and an execution cycle.

a. Interrupt      b. Instruction    c. Time control    d. machine

33. The time required by the microprocessor to complete the operation of accessing memory or I/O device is called as _______

a. Interrupt cycle     b. Instruction cycle   c. Time control    d. machine cycle

34. MOV D,B is _________ addressing mode instruction.

a. Register   b. Direct   c. Indirect   d. Implied

35. LDA C200H  is _________ addressing mode instruction.

 a. Register   b. Direct   c. Indirect   d. Implied

36. LDAX B is _________ addressing mode instruction.

a. Register   b. Direct   c. Indirect   d. Implied

37. CMC is _________ addressing mode instruction.

a. Register   b. Direct   c. Indirect   d. Implied

38. MOV B,C  is ________ type of Instruction set.

a. Data Transfer   b. Arithmetic   c. Logical   d. Branching

39. ADD M is ________ type of Instruction set.

a. Data Transfer   b. Arithmetic   c. Logical   d. Branching

40. ________ instruction uses the auxiliary carry flag.

a. DAA     b. ADD R   c.  MOV r1,r2          d. LDA C200H

 

41. This instruction increments the contents of specified register by 1.

a. INTR    b. INR  R     c. DCR R   d. INX R

 42. This instruction increment the contents of specified register pair HL.

a. INTR    b. INR  R     c. DCR R   d. INX R

43. ANA M  is ________ type of Instruction set.

a. Data Transfer   b. Arithmetic   c. Logical   d. Branching

44. This instruction will logically OR the contents of accumulator with the contents of memory location and the is stored in the accumulator.

a. ORA R   b. ORA M  c. ORI data   d. ANI data

45. This instruction complements the carry flag.

a. CMC   b. CMA  c. STC    d. STA

46. This instruction subtracts the 8-bit data given in the instruction from the contents of the accumulator and sets the condition flags as a result subtraction.

a. CMP R    b. CMP M  c. CPI data   d. CMA

47. HLT instruction meaning _______

a. start MPU   b. stop MPU   c. process MPU   d. Hold  MPU

48. This instruction will rotate the contents of the accumulator left by 1 bit position along with carry.

a. Rotate Accumulator left though carry   b. Rotate Accumulator right though carry 

c. Rotate Accumulator left   d. Rotate Accumulator right

49. _______ instruction rotates the contents of the accumulator to the right by one position.

a. RAR     b. RAL   c. RLC   d. RRC

50.   __________ value is 1’s complement of 1001 1100

a. 0110 0011    b. 1100 0011   c. 1010 1010   d.  0011 1100

CLASS : F.Y.Bsc IT -II SEM

 

SUB: Web Programing

 

50 QUESTIONS

 

 

1. It is a System of interlinked hypertext documents access via the Internet.

a. HTML   b. C++   c. WWW  d. Java

2. URL stands for __________

a. Uniform Record Location   b. Uniform Resource Locator  c. Universal Record Location d. Universal Read Line

3. ________ is designed to search for information on the world wide web and FTP servers.

a. WWW       b. Search engine         c. Web page      d. http

4. _________ is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host to another host.

a. FTP   b. HTTP  c. Telnet  d. WWW 

5. ________ is a company that provides access to the internet.

a. WWW   b. ISP  c. FTP    d. HTTP

6. ________ is a hierarchical distributed naming system for computers, services or any resource connected to the internet.

a. DNS   b. ISP   c. WWW   d. FTP

7. The following is non-geographical domain name.

a. .in     b.  .gov   c. .au   d. .uk

8. In computer network, a ______is a server that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other server.

a. DNS    b. Web  server c. Proxy  server d. Client Server

9. ________is a software application for retrieving, presenting and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web.

a. Application software  b. Web browser   c. System  Software     d. Custom-built software

10. The following is the Web Browser

a. Mozilla Firefox    b. Notepad   c. Windows     d. Editor

11. ________ is a language for designing web pages.

a. C++   b. HTML  c. Window    d. Java

12. ________ tag defines font, color and size.

a. <B>    b. <font>  c. <color>   d. <size>

13. _________ tag defines an HTML form for user input.

a. <form>   b. <I>  c. <html>   d.  <body>

14. __________ tag is largest heading in HTML.

a. <h2>   b. <h1>   c. <h6>   d. <h5>

15. _________ tag defines to insert an image in HTML.

a. <image>   b. <img>  c. <imagesrc>      d. <src>

16. ______ tag defines       the relationship between a document and an external resource.

a. <rel>   b. <link>    c. <a>    d. <body>

17. ________ tag defines a multi-line text input control in HTML.

a. <input>   b. <select>   c. <textarea>   d. <table>

18. ________ tag defines an ordered list in HTML.

a. <UL>   b.<LI>   c. <OL>   d. <DL>

19.  _________ attribute defines ordered listing like A,B,C etc.

a. li     b. type   c. src   d. name

20. _________ attribute specifies an inline style for an element in HTML.

a.  src       b. style   c. source    d. class

 

21.______ attribute specifies script to be run when a document unload

a. OnClick        b. OnLoad        c. OnUnload          d. OnKeyPress

22. ______ attribute specifies script to be run when an element loses foucus.

a. OnClick      b. OnBlur    c. OnSubmit       d. OnLoad

23.  _________ tag defines Strikethrough text in HTML.

a. <S>    b. <B>    c. <Stk>         d. <strikethough>

 24. ______ tag defines subscripted text in HTML.

a. <strike>         b. <sup>         c. <sub>      d. <s>

25. ________ attribute specifies the background color of a document.

a. Backcolor     b. Color     c. Bgcolor      d. Background

26. ________ attribute specifies the background image of a document.

a. Backcolor     b. img    c. src      d. Background

27. ________ attribute specifies the  color of an active link in a document.

a. Link       b. Backcolor    c. Alink       d. Color

28. __________ tag display horizontal line in HTML document.

a. <H1>   b.<HR>   c. <BR>         d. <Horizontal>

29. __________ attribute specifies the font style of text in HTML document.

a. Font         b. Style      c. Face       d. Fontname

30. A __________ tag is a list of items, with a description of each item in HTML document.

a. <DD>         b. <OL>      c. <UL>       d. <DL>

31. To create a link to another document, by using the _______ attribute in HTML.

a.  href       b. style      c. link     d.  list

32. In Html  width and height of the image specify with _________

a.  Pixels         b. numbers        c. meters      d. cms

33. ___________character used to give the name or id of the map element in Image Mapping in HTML.

a. %          b. #        c. &       d. $

34. ____________ tag is used for image mapping in HTML.

a. <MAP>    b. <img>      c. <AREA>       d. <IMAGE>

35. ________ attribute used for server side image mapping in HTML.

a. <A>            b. href          c. USEMAP    d. ISMAP

36.  _________ attribute specifies the space between the cell wall and the cell content in Table.

a. border        b. cellpadding  c. cellspacing     d. spacing

 37. _________attribute specifies the space between cells in Table.

a. border        b. cellpadding  c. cellspacing     d. spacing

38. __________ tag defines the sub window in web page.

a. <frameset>        b. <body>     c.<frame>        d. <noframes>

39. _________ attribute specifies the number and size of columns in a frameset in HTML.

a. columns        b. cols        c. rows      d. rownumber

40. ________ attribute used in both tage <img> and <frameset> in HTML.

a.   source       b. src           c. href       d.    class

41. ________ attribute specifies that an <input> element should be pre selected when the page loads.

a. enabled        b. checked     c. visible   d. selected

42. _________ attribute specifies the maximum number of characters  allowed in <input> element.

a. maximumlength   b.maxlength     c. length      d. size

43. The _________ tag defines a multi-line text input control in HTML.

a. <input>          b. <text>       c. <textarea>        d. <textbox>

44. The _________ tag is used to create a select list(drop-down) list in HTML.

a. <select>        b. <input>       c. <textbox>        d. <option>

45. _______ value used in type attribute of <input> tag to select only one of a limited number of choices in HTML.

a. option       b. radio             c. password    d. checkbox

46. _______ method sends the form-data as an HTTP post transaction in <form> tag.

a. send        b. post       c. get          d. receive

47. _______ tag defines the relationship between a document and external resource in HTML.

a. <a>       b. <rel>          c. <link>           d. <input>

48. Style attribute used in ________ type of CSS.

a. internal         b. external          c. inline        d.   input

49. To change the background color __________ property used in CSS.

a. bgcolor        b. background-color       c. backcolor        d. color

50. __________ property used to change the font in CSS.

a. font-size       b. font-name      c. font-family       d. font-style