SYBAF - SEM IV - MCQ
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
Questions
SAMPLE MCQ
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI SYLLABUS
Will be helpful to
regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online
examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V
class of students.
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so also share it among your friends so that they will be also benefited from
it.
CLASS: S.Y. B.A.F -IV
SEM REGULAR
SUB: Business Law
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1.
The companies are regulated under
a.
Companies Act, 1957
b.
Companies Act, 1596
c.
Companies Act, 2013
d.
Indian Partnership Act,1932
e.
2.
The application for registration of a company
should be presented to the registrar of the state in which the _______________
of the company is to be situated.
a.
First
Branch
b.
Manufacturing
plant
c.
Business office
d.
None
of the above
e.
3.
The address of the registered office of the
company must be notified to the registrar within _________ days of
registration, if it is not done at the time of incorporation.
a.
30
b.
60
c.
45
d.
15
4.
If the proposed nominal capital is more than 25
lakh at the time of incorporation then the company needs to submit
________________ along with the application
a.
Certificate of Incorporation
b.
Statement of capital
c.
Certificate of Capital
d.
Shareholding pattern
5.
“Men may come and men may go but the company exist”-
this explains which characteristics of the company as per companies Act 1956
a.
Separate Legal entity
b.
Perpetual succession
c.
Capacity to sue
d.
None of the above
6.
A private company means a company which has a
minimum paid up capital of Rs. _______.
a.
1 lakh
b.
5 lakhs
c.
50 lakhs
d.
12 lakhs
7.
_________ are the company created by special
act of the legislature
a.
Registered company
b.
Public Ltd Company
c.
Private company
d.
Statutory company
8.
A Government Company means any company in which
not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by
a.
Central Govt
b.
State Govt
c.
Both a & b
d.
Neither a nor b
9.
If the company can make arrangements for
raising the capital privately so that pubic appeal is unnecessary, the company
is required to prepare a_____
a.
Prospectus
b.
Statement in lieu of
prospectus
c.
Certificate of prospectus
d.
None of the above
10.
_______________ capital means the sum mentioned
in the capital clause of Memorandum of Association
a.
Full capital
b.
Maximum Capital
c.
Share capital
d.
Nominal capital
11.
In case of Public company remuneration to the
directors should not exceed ___ % of the net profits of the company as per
section 198.
a.
14
b.
11
c.
10
d.
15
12.
Can a Private company issue new shares to
outsiders?
a.
Yes
b.
No
c.
Partially yes
d.
Can’t say
13.
The lending of money by the company to its
directors is strictly regulated by section 185 of the CA, 2013
a.
In a statutory company
b.
In a Royal chatter
c.
In a public company
d.
In a private company
14.
One person company may be
a.
A company limited by shares
b.
A company limited by guarantee
c.
An unlimited company
d.
All of the above
15.
______ is the conclusive evidence in case of
company that statutory requirements have complied with
a.
Certificate of incorporation
b.
Certificate of commencement of business
c.
Both
d.
None
16.
If XYZ is the
holding company of P&R Ltd. then, which of the following statement is not
true in this regard.
a.
XYZ Ltd.
controls the composition of Board of P&R
b.
XYZ Ltd.
holds more than 50% of the nominal value of the equity shares
c.
Both a &
b
d.
None of the
above
17.
The
registered office clause of memorandum of association contains
a.
The name of
the city/town only and not that of the state
b.
The complete
postal address
c.
The name of
the state in which the registered office of the company is to be situated
d.
The name of
registrar of companies
18.
Which documents
contains the constitution of a company?
a.
Memorandum of
Association
b.
Articles of
Association
c.
Both a &
b
d.
None of the
above
19.
Converting a
public company into a private company requires a special resolution
a.
Passed by the
members and approved by the Registrar of companies
b.
Passed by the
members and approved by the company Law Tribunal
c.
Passed by the
members and with sanction of the central Government
d.
Passed by the
members and approved by the auditors
20.
In which of
the following conditions, a company will be reckoned a foreign company?
a.
If the
company is established outside India and has a place- of business in India
b.
A company
incorporated outside India having shareholders who are all Indian citizens
and having its business outside India
c.
A company incorporated
in India but having all foreign shareholders.
d.
Both a and b
21.
Government
company means a company wherein _____ % of the paid up share capital is held by
the central Govt. or by State Govt. or partially by both
a.
50
b.
25
c.
51
d.
75
22.
The Audit
report of the Govt company is to be submitted to ____
a.
Board of
Directors
b.
Auditor
General of India
c.
Auditor
d.
Analysist
23.
A Government
company is barred and prohibited from making contributions to the _______
a.
Public
company
b.
Private
company
c.
Political
party
d.
Cyber company
24.
Can a firm be
a member of the company registered under Section 8 of the CA, 2013.
a.
Yes
b.
No
c.
Invalid
d.
Contravention
to the Act
25.
A company can change its name at its own
discretion by passing _________
a.
Ordinary
Resolution
b.
Board
Resolution
c.
Special resolution
d.
None of the
above
26.
The dividend
on preference capital is paid________
a.
When there
are profits
b.
When there is
loss
c.
Even if there
are no profits
d.
After
dividend is paid to equity shares
27.
What are the
mandatory requirements of the company
a.
Prospectus
b.
Place of
business in foreign
c.
Perpetual
succession
d.
All of the
above
28.
A company
must have a registered office from the day on which it ___________ business or ______
day after its incorporation which ever is earlier
a.
Ends, 30th
b.
Commences, 30th
c.
Ends 60th
d.
Commences, 60th
29.
Memorandum of
Association can also be called as
a.
Chartered
documents
b.
Documents
filed by a CS
c.
Charter of the company
d.
Blue print of
the company
30.
Name any 4
fundamental clauses of the memorandum of a company
a.
______
b.
______
c.
______
d.
______
31.
XYZ Co, is
having 15% share capital held by X Company and 50% held by Central Government
and 10% held by State Government and 25% held by other people then that company
will be
a.
Government
Company
b.
Private
Company
c.
Public
Company
d.
None of these
32. Companies
are now allotted a _______ in addition to their name
a. PAN
b. SIN
c. PIN
d. CIN
33.
Ultra means
____ and vires mean _______.
34. The
granting of the certificate of incorporation renders the illegal objects
include in the memorandum:
a. Legal
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. None
of the above
35.
Which of the
following are not exceptions to the Doctrine of Indoor Management/Turquand Rule
a.
Knowledge of irregularity
b.
Suspicion of
irregularity
c.
Forgery
d.
Ultra virus
torts
36.
A person
cannot be a director of more than ____ companies as per the companies amendment
Act 2002
a.
5
b.
10
c.
15
d.
20
37.
The Golden
Rule for framing the prospectus was laid down in the case of _____
a.
Royal british
Bank
b.
Rex v.
Kylsant
c.
Derry v. Peek
d.
New Brunswick
and Canada Rly & land Co. v. Muggeridge
38.
What is
punishment for directors, promoters and other persons for Misrepresentation in
prospectus
a.
50,000
b.
2 years
imprisonment
c.
Both of the
above
d.
None
39.
________are
required to file prior to making second and subsequent issue of securities in
case shelf prospectus are filed:
a.
Information
memorandum
b.
Information
articles
c.
Form 13
d.
None of the
above
40. _______are
the prospectus issued instead of full prospectus
a. Abridged
b. Statement
in lieu
c. Shelf
d. Red
herring
41. Contracts
made after incorporation but before the grant of Certificate of commencement of
Business _____
a. Provisional
contracts
b. Pre
incorporation contracts
c. Preliminary
contracts
d. Both
(b) & (c)
42. Ultra
vires means
a. Beyond
the power
b. within
the power
c. Both
d. None
of the above
43. If
a new company get registered with a name which resembles the name of existing
company then it should apply to whom?
a. NCLT
b. SEBI
c. ROC
d. None
of the above
44.
If
the companies do not increase their paid up capital by 1/5 lakhs within 2 years
such companies are known as ___________
a.
Private
b.
Public
c.
Defunct
d.
Govt
Company
45.
The
company needs to obtain prior permision from central government when it changes
the address of its registered office from
a.
One
city to another
b.
One state to another
c.
One
country to another
d.
Within
the same city
46.
A
private company may issue securities through the way of, except
a.
Public offer
b.
Right
issues
c.
Bonus
issue
d.
Private
placement
47.
Offer
of securities or invitation to subscribe securities under private placement
shall be made to _________ maximum number of persons in the aggregate in a
financial year
a.
50
b.
100
c.
150
d.
200
48.
Mark
out the document that need not be prepared and registered with the registrar of
companies in public limited companies
a.
statutory
declaration
b.
memorandum
of association.
c.
articles of association.
d.
Director’s
undertakings to take up and pay for qualification shares
49.
A
shareholder purchased in the open market shares of a company whose prospectus
contained some misstatements. He ____________.
a.
can
rescind the contract only but cannot claim damages
b.
can
claim damages only but cannot rescind the contract
c.
has no remedy against the company.
d.
has
remedy against the directors responsible for the issue of the prospectus.
50.
The
Reserve Bank of India is an example of a _____________.
a.
registered
company.
b.
statutory company.
c.
chartered
company.
d.
unlimited
company.
CLASS: S.Y.BAF SEM 4
SUB : RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1. Finding
out something which is not in existence
a) Invention b) inquiry c) survey
d) innovation
2. Scientific
study which involves a dedicated effort with a purposeful aim
a) Innovation b) enquiry
c) Research d) search
3. Type
of research where facts and information already available are analyzed
a) Analytical
research b)
empirical research c) Descriptive
research d)applied research
4. Applied
research studies about
a) General
items b)specific case c) facts
d) general topic
5. The
statement temporarily accepted as truth is known as
a) Fact b) analysis c) problem
d) hypothesis
6. Using
the information ideas of another without properly documenting them ks
a) Plagiarism b)
Invention c) documents d) summons
7. Research
based on quality
a) Analytical
research b) qualitative
research c) hypothesis d) quantitative research
8. A
hypothesis is a tentative generalization the validity of which remains to be
tested . The definition of hypothesis is given by
a) Goode
and Hatt b) George A. Lundberg c) Coffey d)
Mill
9. Which
type of hypothesis aim at testing the existence of logically derived
relationships between empirical uniformities.
a) Analytical
hypothesis b)common sense
hypothesis c) complex hypothesis d)Null hypothesis
10. The
type of hypothesis which describe the characteristics
a) Relational b) Casual
c) Working d) Descriptive
11. Which
research develops findings through the collection of data gathered through
observation that is usually used to test research hypothesis
a) Empirical b)
Analytic c) Descriptive c) Research
12. Empirical
research is done using
a) Observations b) Empirical evidence c) Studies d)data
13. Ascertaining
unknown information is
a) Discovery b) survey
c) enquiry d)search
14. Finding
something which is already into existence
a) Advance b)Inquiry
c)Invention d) Discovery
15. Which
of the following is not a type of research
a) Applied b) analytical c) Different d) descriptive
16. Basic
research reports in which type of language
a) Common b) technical c) easy
d) descriptive
17. Which
questions represent the beginning
a) Specifying
questions b)Rationale questions c) Originating questions d) formulation questions
18. Feasibility
issue of research include
a) Problem b) Availability of guidance c)
abstract d)socio economic
19. Which
of the following is not a criteria of good research
a) Narrowing
a topic b)
Novelity c) Interesting d) Importance
20. The
survey of literature is also known as
a) Defining b) Literature impact c) situation study d) review of literature
21. A
powerful tool to streamline your library research
a) Google
scholar b) summon c)Database d) search
22. Which
is the preliminary step before attempting to plan the study
a) Review
of literature b)
Documenting c) search d) Database
23. Stands
for advance planning of methods to be adopted for collecting the relevant data
and techniques to be used in analysis.
a) Research
method b) hypothesis c) analysis study d) Research design
24. Which
of the following is not a quality of good research design
a) Systematic b)not reliable c) logical
d) empirical
25. Which
of the following is a predictive statement
a) Description
study b) analytical study c) hypothesis d) statistical process
26. What
is a kind of inspection assessment check and review
a) Survey b)
discovery c) questionnaire d) inquiry
27. The
degree to which each research process instrument and tool is related to each
other
a) Validity b)accuracy c) reliability d) transparency
28. When
research is conducted following rigorous scientific methods and procedures is
called as
a) Empirical
in nature b)
systematic in nature c)
credibility d) Controlled in nature
29. Research
is applicable to
a) All
the fields b)
Only Science c) only technology d)
Only management
30. Which
is the major characteristic of a research
a) Validity b) Accuracy
c) Reliability d)
Credibility
31. Which
of the following is not a type of research
a) Basic
and pure b) Generalized c)Applied d) Descriptive
32. The
suitability of the problem for a particular research worker is the matter of
kts
a) Importance b) Application c) Formulation d) Feasibility
33. Good
research design helps the
a) Investigator b)
Society c) Government d) Customer
34. Research
based on quantity
a) Qualitative b) Impaired
c) Quantitative d) Barred
35. Which
type of hypothesis form a negative statement
a) Relational b)Working
c) Null d) Complex
36. When
is the alternate hypothesis statement accepted
a) When
there is no option left b) after a
null hypothesis is rejected c) At
beginning d) At end
37. The
broad framework that describes how the entire research project is carried out
a) Research
design b)
Research method c) Research
analysis d) Research Data
40.
Probability and Non probability are the type of
a) Observation design b) sampling design c) Cross section design d) statistic
41. If a researcher decide that his/her
research is going to be done just one time in a single setting it is known as
a) Field setting b)Casual setting c)Lab setting d) Cross sectional and longitudinal
research
42. Which type of environment is created in a
laboratory research
a) Natural
b) Problematic c)
Artificial d) Field setting
43. What is the hybrid of field setting and
laboratory known as
a) Probability
b)Sampling c) Stimulation
Research d) Descriptive research
44. Which of thd following is an example of
experimental research design
a) Test marketing b)
Sampling c) Observation d) Operational
45. Which type of interviews are used to offer
respondents a great deal of freedom
a) Unstructured b)
Structured c) Analysis d) grouped
46. If a researcher goes out to the natural
setting observe and analyzes data in that natural setting it is called
a) Stimulation research b)Field setting c) Laboratory setting d) Natural research
47. Making research design is
a) writing steps b) conducting survey c) Minimize wastage d)Setting a plan in advance
48. Research design is helpful for testing of
a) Methodology
b) Literature c)
Hypothesis d) Conclusion
49. What is the step to be done after defining
the problem
a) Review of literature b)
Formulation of problem c) search about
the problem d) Analysis of problem
50. Bringing modernization improvement and
upgradation means
a) Invention
b) discovery c) Research d) Innovation
CLASS: S.Y.BAF SEM 4
SUB : DIRECT TAX
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1. Un absorbed depreciation
allowance can be carried forward for
a)
4
years b)8 years c)1 year
d) Indefinitely
2. Loss from activity of owing
and maintain horse races can be set off against
a)
All
income b) only profits from activity
of owning and maintaining race horses c)
all speculative profit d) All item’s
under house property
3. Unabsorbed speculation loss
can be carried forward to next how many years
a)
6 b) 12
c) 4 d) 9
4. Income from a rented house
comes under
a)
Income
from capital gains b) Income from
house property c) Income from
salary d) Income from business
5. If the total income is upto
250000 then what would be the applicable tax rate
a)
30% b)5%
c) 2.5% d)Nil
6. Deduction under 80 E is
related to
a)
LIC b) Higher education c) NSC
d) Physically Disable
7. Income from lotteries is
taxable under
a)
Salary b)business
c) other sources d)house
property
8. Remuneration received by a
working partner of a partnership firm U/S 40 (b) is taxed under
a)
Income
of salary b) Income from business
and profession c) Income from other
source d)Capital Gains
9. Share of the income received
by a member of HUF is
a)
Exempt b) Chargeable c)Not valid
d)Income
10. Which expense of an assessee
is not deductible u/s 58
a)
Business b) Income
c)personal d)other
source
11. Speculative loss can be set
off only against
a)
Salary
income b) Capital Gain c) Business income d)None of the above
12. Unabsorbed loss from house property
can be carried forward to next
a)
6
years b) 12 years c) 8 years d) 4 years
13. Long term capital gains
should be set off only against
a)
Any
other head b) only specific head c) with no head d) short term capital
14. There is a net loss of 2,00,000
after considering all provisions of calculations of book profits of a firm. The
maximum amount deductible on account of remuneration to partners u/s 40 b will
be
a)
1,50,000 b) 2,00,000 c) Nil
d)3,00,000
15. Voluntary retirement
compensation received by retiring employee is exempt under 10/10C to the
maximum extent of
a)
3,50,000 b) 5,00,000 c)1,00,000 d)2,00,000
16. Gross total income is Rs
1,90,000 and life insurance premium paid is Rs1,95,000 the taxable income would
be
a)
90,000 b)(-90,000) c)Nil
d) 5000
17. There is a long term capital
gain if equity shares sold were held for
a)more then
12 months b)more then 36 months c)
more then 3 years d) more then
10 months
18. Belated return for the
previous year ended 31st march 2010 can be filed before the
completion of assessment or on or before
a)
31st
March 2011 b)31st March
2013 c) 31st march
2010 d) 31st March 2012
19. The due date for filling
return of income for a company assessee is
a)
30th
September b) 31st July c) 31st March d) 31st December
20. Deduction u/s 80E shall be
allowed for higher education of
a)
Assessee
himself b)Assessee and his family c) Assesse his spouse and dependent
children d)Spouse only
21. Deduction u/s 80C in respect
of LIP contribution to provident fund is allowed to
a)
Any
assessee b)Any individual c)Any resident of India d)Any individual or HUF
22. Family pension is deduction
upto
a)
20,000 b) 5000 c) 15000 d)9000
23. Agriculture income from India
is
a)
Exempt b) Charged c)
Deductible d) Charged under other
sources
24. Due date of filing income tax
return is
a)
31st
March b) 31st July c) 31st December d) 30th
September
25. Deduction given to severely
handicapped individual
a)
2,50,000 b) 1,00,000 c)75000
d) 1,25,000
26. Deduction u/s 80C in respect
to tution fees is allowed upto how many chilfren
a)
1 b) 3
c) 2 d) 5
27. Dividend from Indian
companies is an
a)
Exmept b) Taxable c) Chargeable b) Income
28. Gift from father received Rs
1,00,000 is taxable upto
a)
Is
completely exempt b) 50,000 taxable c) Fully taxable d)75,000 taxable
29. Deduction u/s 80D is allowed
to an individual for premium paid to insure the heath of
a)
Assessee
his spouse dependent parents and dependent children b)Assessee himself
c)His children only d) Dependent
parents only
30. Shivaji University is and
a)
Individual b)Local Authority c) University d) Artificial Juridical person
31. Agriculture income from Sri
Lanka is taxable under
a)
Foreign
Income b) Income from other
source c) Income from business d)Capital Gain
32. No income is derive from
a)
Let
out property b) House property c)Self occupied property d)Rented property
33. Deductions of VI A are
allowed from
a)
Net
income b)Gross total income c) Capital Income d) Final income
34. Mr Ravi is a practising CA
and full time lecturer in SN college the remuneration he receives will be
charged under
a)
Income
from business b) Capital Gains c)Income from other source d)Income from business
35. Deduction u/s 80C in respect
of LIP is allowed to
a)
Any
assesse b)Any individual c)any Indian resident
d)Any Individual or HUF
36. What is the income tax rate
when the income slab is 10,00,000 and above
a)
35% b)5%
c)30% d) 20%
37. For a individual whose age is
above 80 years what is the rate of tax for
income upto 5,00,000
a)
5% b) 7.5%
c) 2.5% d)Nil
38. ITR5 is used for
a)
Firms
AOP BOI’s b)HUF
c) Individual d) Companies
39. If income is upto 2,50,000
the tax rate would be
a)
2% b)Nil
c)3% d) 4%
40. NSC interest is exempt under
section
a)80E b)80U c)80C d)80D
41. Ex gratia is treated as
a)
Other
source income b)Business income c)Capital gains d) salary
42. Who is the head of HUF
a)
Karta b)co parceners c)head of family d) family members
43. Revised return is filed when
a)
Fraud b) Error
c)) Omission or wrong statement is discovered d) Return furnished
44. Equity shares for 8 months
are
a)
Long
term capital asset b) short term
capital asset c)Capital gain d)other source
45. The deduction u/s 80E for
payment of interest on loan for higher education is allowed for maximum how
many years
a)
5
years b) 1 year c) 3 year
d) 8 years
46. An Indian company is
a)
Ordinarily
Resident b) non ordinary c)non resident d) Resident
47. Maximum contribution to
pension funds u/s 80C and 80CC
a)
50,000 b) 1,50,000
c)1,00,000 d) 2,00,000
48. Gift from friend is charged
under
a)
Income
from salary b) Income from other
sources c) Income from business d) Capital Gains
49. When a property is sold it is
charged under which head
a)
Capital
Gains b) Salary c)Other sources d) Business
50. Profession tax is deducted
from
a)
Net
salary b) Allowance c) Total salary d)Gross salary
CLASS
: SYBAF -IV SEM
SUB: INFORMATION
TECHNOLOGY
CLASS
TEST : 50 QUESTIONS
1.__________ is collection of linked tasks
which find their end in the delivery of a service or product to a client.
a. Service process b. Business process c. Operational process d. management process
2. Generating revenue is an example of ___________ process
a. Business b. Operational c. Supporting d. Management
3. Human Centric Business Process include____
a. Customer
Service b. Business Service c. Management Service d. Operational Service
4. Business
Process Management consists of ______ phases.
a.
1 b. 2
c. 4 d. 5
5. The
following is the advantage of BPM
a. Efficiency
and Reduce Risks b. Complexity c. Not Measurability d. Not Sustainability
6.
_______is a formalized graphic representation of a logic sequence, work or
manufacturing process, organization chart, or similar formalized structure.
a.
Graph b. Chart c. FlowChart d. Diagram
7.
_______ are outlined on a document with clear start and end points.
a.
Status-driven business process b. Sequential
business process c. Parallel Business process d. Subsequential business
process
8. In
Process Mapping Symbols ______ shape is used to indicate the start and end
points.
a. Oval b. Rectangle
c. Arrow d. Diamond
9. In
Process Mapping Symbols ______ shape is used to indicate specific steps or
tasks to be completed.
a. Oval b. Rectangle
c. Arrow d. Diamond
10. In
Process Mapping Symbols ______ shape is used to represent a decision point in
the process, this is point at which yes or no response is needed.
a. Oval b.
Rectangle c. Arrow d. Diamond
11. In Process Mapping Symbols ______ shape is
used to represent as connectors show how one point in the process leads to
another.
a. Oval b.
Rectangle c. Arrow d. Diamond
12. ERP stands for ___________
a. Enterprise
Resource Planning b. Enter
Result planning c. Entrepreneur Result planning
d.
Enter Revision Planning
13. __________ is an ERP/ Accounting Software
a.
E-Generation b. MS-Office c. Visual basic d. Tally
14.
_______ is shortcut key to alter company in Tally
a.
Alt+F1 b. F1 c.
Alt+F3 d. Alt+F4
15. If
you want to secure your company from other users, even from selection, provide
a ________ password here.
a.
Accounting b. Tally Vault c. Login
d. Invetory
16._______
shortcut key save the record information directly from any field.
a.
Ctrl+A b. Ctrl+F c. Ctrl+S
d. Ctrl+P
17. To
select a company Press _________ key in
Tally
a.
F1 b. F2 c. F3 d. F4
18. To
shut a company press ________ key in Tally
a.
Alt+ F1 b. Alt+ F2 c. Alt+ F3 d. Alt+ F4
19. To
delete existing company which Company information options we use in Tally
a. Alter b. Create c. Delete d. Select
20.
______ shortcut key is used to change the voucher date in Tally
a.
Alt+ F1 b. Alt+ F2 c. F1 d. F2
21.
______ shortcut key is used to change the period of company in Tally
a.
Alt+ F1 b. Alt+ F2 c. F1 d. F2
22. To
change the features of company in Tally
________ key is used.
a.
F12 b. F2 c. F4 d. F11
23. To
change the configuration of account and inventory information in Tally
________ key is used.
a. F12 b. F2
c. F4 d. F11
24. In
Tally there are ________ pre-defined group.
a.
15 b. 13 c. 28 d. 10
25. In
Tally there are __________ primary group.
a. 15 b. 13 c. 28 d. 10
26. In
Tally there are __________ sub group.
a. 15 b. 13 c. 28
d. 10
27. Cash-in
hand is type of _______ primary group.
a. Current
Assets b. Fixed Assets c. Capital Account d. Stock-in-hand
28.
______ shortcut key is used to create contra voucher in Tally.
a.
F1 b. F4 c. F5
d. F6
29. ______
shortcut key is used to create purchase voucher in Tally.
a.
F6 b. F7 C. F8
D. F9
30. ______
shortcut key is used to create sales voucher in Tally.
a.
F6 b. F7 C. F8 D. F9
31.
______ shortcut key is used to create Journal voucher in Tally.
a.
F6 b. F7 C. F8
D. F9
32.
______ shortcut key is used to create payment voucher in Tally.
a.
F6 b. F7 C. F5 D. F9
33. ______ shortcut key is used to create credit
note voucher in Tally.
a.
F9 b. F8 C. Alt+F8 D. Alt+F9
34. ______ shortcut key is used to create debit
note voucher in Tally.
a.
F9 b. F8 C. Alt+F8
D. Alt+F9
35. ______
shortcut key is used to create purchase order voucher in Tally.
a.
F4 b. F5 C. Alt+F4 D. Alt+F5
36. ______
shortcut key is used to create purchase order voucher in Tally.
a.
F4 b. F5 C. Alt+F4
D. Alt+F5
37. To
create single ledger do the following steps in Tally.
a. Gateway
of Tally ->ledgers ->Create ->Single ledger
b.
Gateway of Tally -> Create ->Single ledger->ledger
c.
Gateway of Tally ->Create ->Single ledger
Gateway
of Tally ->Alt+C ->Create ->Single ledger
38. To
create group do the following steps in Tally.
a. Gateway
of Tally ->Groups ->Create ->Single Group
b.
Gateway of Tally -> Create ->Single Group->Group
c.
Gateway of Tally ->Create ->Single Group
Gateway
of Tally ->Alt+C ->Create ->Single Group
39. To
display Balance sheet do the following steps
a. Gateway
of Tally -> Reports -> Balance Sheet
b.
Account info- > Report -> Balance Sheet
c.
Inventory info- > Report -> Balance Sheet
d.
Account info- > Balance Sheet
40. To
display day book of transaction voucher in tally do the following steps
a. Gateway
of Tally -> Reports -> Display-> Day Book
b. Gateway
of Tally -> Reports -> Day Book
c. Gateway
of Tally -> Display
d.
Account info -> Display -> Day Book
41.
Supply Chain Management is an example of ________ type of process.
a.
Human-Centric Business process b. System Intensive Process c. Document Intensive Process
d.
Service Process
42.
The process life cycle is DMEMO means
a. Document
– Modelling – Execution -Monitoring -Optimization
b. Design
– Modelling – Execution -Monitoring -Optimization
c.
Deliver – Modelling – Execution -Monitoring -Optimization
d.
Domestic- Modelling – Execution
-Monitoring -Optimization
43.
Business interaction consists of ________ phases
a.
one b. two c. three d. four
44.
Business interaction consists of following phase.
a. negotiation
b. conversation c. modelling d. supplier
45.
DEMO means _______ in business process management system
a. Dynamic
Essential modelling of
Organizations.
b. Document
Essential modelling of Organizations.
c.
Demo Essential modelling of Organizations.
d. Design
Essential modelling of
Organizations.
46. TQM
stands for ___________ in BPM
a.
Total Quantity Management
b. Total
Quality Management
c.
Total Query Management
d.
Total Quiz Management
47.
________ refers to a Japanese word which means improvement or change for the
better.
a. Kaizen b. Key c. Knowledge d. Keores
48.
______ principle says BPM must be anchored in organization responsibilities.
a.
Principle of Institutionalization
b. Principle of Holism c.
Principle of Enablement
d.
Principle of Business
49.
________ has impacted BPM.
a.
Cloud availability b. Virtualization c. Technique d. Process
50.
CRM stands for __________
a. Customer
Relationship Management b. Customer
Recruitment Management
c.
Customer Resource Management d. Customer Read Management
s to the need for a just distribution o rewards and burdens between generations, and fair and impartial treatment of future generations.
A. Intra-generational()
B. Eco-generational()
c.intergenerational() d. Generational()
2. It
is ________ that a person filing a case under PIL should have a direct interest
in public interest litigation.
a. NECESSARY() b. NOT NECESSARY() c. iMPORTANT() d. VITAL()
3. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is
preplaced by Consumer Protection Act, ________
a. 2019 () b. 2014() c. 2020 () d. 2015()
4. Under Consumer Protection
Act 2019, the State Commission deals with consumer complaints, where the value
of goods/services and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________
crore.
a. 20() b. 30() c.
10() d. 15()
5. The Consumer Protection Act
2019 came into force with effect from ________
a. 20th JULY 2019() b. 21st AUGUST 2019(c. 20th
JULY 2020() d. 1sr APRIL 2020()
4. The Consumer Protection Act
2019, the District Forum deals with consumer complaints, where the value of goods/services
and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________ crore.
a. 1() b. 5() c. 10() d. 20()
5. Under the ‘Rights to ________’,
a consumer has the right to be protected against certain goods which are
dangerous to human life.
a. SAFETY() b. BE HEARD() c. CHOOSE() d. BE INFORMED()
6. Under the ‘Rights to ________’,
a consumer has the right to register complaints and grievances relating to
products which he/she uses.
a. CHOOSE() b. BE INFORMED() c. SAFETY() d.
BE HEARD()
7. The Consumer Protection
Act, the National Commission at the national level deals with complaints of
amount that exceeds INR ___________ crore.
a. 20() b. 10() c. 15() d. 25()
8. The Essential Services
Maintenances Act ensures the delivery of certain services, which if ________
would affect the normal life of the people.
a. PROVIDED() b. GUARDED() c. DELIVERED()d. OBSTRUCTED()
9.PIL means, litigation filed
in a ________ for the protection of public interest that generally affects a
group of persons or society at large.
a. STATE LITIGATION
DEPARTMENT() b. CENTRAL GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENT()
c. COURT OF LAW() d.
STATE SECRETARIATE()
10. The Right to Information
Act, 2005 came into force with effects from _________ 2005.
a. 26th AUGUST() b. 2nd OCTOBER() c. 20th JULY()d. 15th
JUNE()
11. The main objective of PIL
is to protect __________
a. PUBLIC INFORMATION() b.
GOVERNMENT INTEREST()
c. PRIVATE INTEREST() d.
PUBLIC INTEREST()
12. The concept of Citizens’
Charter was first introduced and implemented in the ________ in 1991.
a. UNITED STATES OF AMERICA() b
INDIA()
c. UNITED KINGDOM() d.
PORTUGAL()
13. _________ is the first state in India to introduce the Right to
Public Services Act in 2010.
a. UTTAR PRADESH()b. MADHYA
PRADESH()c. MAHARASHTRA()d. GOA()
14. ____________ is the
facility set up by the central government organisations to provide information
to citizens about their programmes/ schemes, rules and procedures, etc.
A. Information centre()b.
Information and facilitation counter ()
C. Information website() d. Programmes information()
15. The Indian Contract Act
was passed in the year ____________
a. 1872 () b. 1990 () c. 1986 ()d. 2020()
16. In India, Citizens’
Charter was implanted in the year ___________
a. 2000 () b. 2005 () c.
1999 ()d. 1997()
17. The Right to Information
Act was first introduced in __________ state.
a. GUJARAT() b. TAMIL NADU () c.
GOA() d. RAJASTHAN()
18. PIL refers to ___________
A. Public interest
litigation()b. Public information litigation()c. Police
information litigation()d. Private information litigation()
19. In India, the Citizens’
Charter was first introduced in the _________ sector.
a. EDUCATION()b.AIRLINES() c. BANKING() d. INSURANCE()
20. The Department of
Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) as set up by Government of
India as a ________ agency relating to Citizens’ Charters.
a. IMPLEMENTING()b.
PROVIDING() c. COORDINATING()d.
SERVING()
21. A citizens’ charter is a
document setting out the rights of _________ which guarantees the right to
redress on occasions where public services failed to meet certain standards.
a. CITIZENS()b. SENIOR
CITIZENS() c. MALES() d. FEMALES()
22. Under the ‘Right to
_______’, a consumer has the right to buy the products of his/her choice.
a. BE INFORMED() b. CHOOSE()c. BE HEARD()d. SAFETY()
23. The term ‘ecology’ was
termed by German biologist ________
A. Ernst hackle() b. Angela merkel() c. Ernest borges() d. Boris
merkel()
24. The Universal Declaration
of Human Rights was first adopted in_________. Well before environmental
concerns were raised.
a. 1978() b. 1968 () c. 1958() d. 1948()
25. The ________ states
“whoever is responsible for the damage to the environment should bear the costs
associated with it.”
a. PPP() b. SDG() c. MDG() d. ECD()
26. _________ describes
movements and philosophies that link feminism with ecology
A. Feminism()b. Fem-philosophy()c.
Ecofeminism() d. Movement
philosophy()
27. ___________ ecology is the
study of the relationships between political, economic and social factors with
environmental issues and changes.
a. ENVIRONMENTAL() b. SOCIAL() c. ECONOMIC() d. POLITICAL()
28. The concept of ‘Extended
Producer Responsibility was first described by _________.’
A. Thomas edison()b.ernst
havckle() c. Thomas lindquist() d. Stan rowe()
29. __________ coined the term
‘deep ecology’.
A. Paul taylor ()b. Arne naess() c. Stan rowe() d. John passmore()
30. Population ecology studies
the dynamics of population of a ____________ species.
A. Single() b. Human() c. Several() d. Animal()
31. ________ equity refers to
the need for a just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations,
and fair and impartial treatment of future generations.
A. Intra-generational() b. Eco-generational()
C. Intergenerational() d. Generational()
32. _________ principle is
referred to the responsibility of polluter to bear costs associated with the
damage to the environment.
A. Polluter costs() b.
Polluter bans()
C. Polluter gains() d.
Polluter pays()
33. _________ focuses on the biotic community as
a whole and strives to maintain ecosystem compositions and ecological
processes.
A. Ecocentrism() b.
Anthropocentrism()
C. Biocentrism() d. Ecofeminism()
34. ________ ecology studies
the flows of energy and matter through the biotic and abiotic components of the
ecosystems.
A. Systems() b. Political() c. Ecosystem() d. Landscape()
35. __________ seeks to shift
the responsibility of costs dealing with waste from government to the
manufacturers producing it.
A. Polluter pays principle() b. Extended producer
responsibility()
C. Sustainable development
principle() d. Waste management
responsibility()
36. ________ argues that the
natural world is a subtle balance of complex inter-relationships in which the
existence of organisms is dependent on the existence of others within
ecosystem.
A. Deep ecology() b. Ecofeminism() c. Ecocentrism() d.
Biocentrism()
37. Community ecology focuses
on the interactions between species with an _________ community.
a. Social() b.
Ecological() c. Economic() d. Environmental()
38. __________ refers to
comprehensive science of the relationship of the organism with the environment.
A. Botany() b.
Ecology()
C. Environmental
relationships() d. Organic science()
39. ___________ equity is
concerned with equity between people of the same generation.
A. Intragenerational() b. Generational()
C. Intergenerational() d. Eco-generational()
40. The sustainable
development goals are for the period from 2015 to _________.
A. 2020() b. 2030() c.
2025() d.
2050()
41. __________ is a nature
centered approach.
A. Anthropocentrism() b. Ecofeminism()
C. Biocentrism() d. Ecocentrism()
42. ____________ refers to
avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an
ecological balance.
A. Morality() b. Sustainability() c. Ecology() d.
Eco-depletion()
43. __________ grant morals standing
to all living beings.
A. Anthropocentrism() b. Ecofeminism()
C. Biocentrism() d.
Ecocentrism()
44. The sustainable
development goals were developed to replace the __________ goals.
A. Economic development() b. Sustainability()
C. Millennium
development () d. Socio-economic()
45. Wwf stands for world
wildlife _________.
A. Finance() b. Fund() c.
Forms() d. Nature()
46. __________ ecology
examines processes and relationship across multiple ecosystems or very large
geographic areas.
A. Geographic() b. Evolutionary() c. Landscape() d.
Population()
47. ___________ refers to
avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an
ecological balance.
A. Morality() b. Sustainability() c. Ecology() d. Eco-depletion()
48. The __________ declaration
on environment and development was approved by the united nations in 1992.
A. Kyoto() b. London() c. Delhi() d. Rio()
49.____________ is a life
centered approach views animals as important living beings.
A. Anthropocentrism() b. Ecofeminism()
C. Biocentrism() d. Ecocentrism()
50. The ___________ is a
strategy to cope with possible risks where scientific understanding is yet
incomplete, such as the risk of nanotechnology, genetically modified organisms
and systematic insecticides.
A. Polluter pays principle() b. Precautionary principle()
C. Extended producer
responsibility() d. Sustainable
development principle()
SUB : FOUNDATION COURSE
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. ________ equity refers to the need for a
just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations, and fair and
impartial treatment of future generations.
A. Intra-generational()
B. Eco-generational()
c.intergenerational() d. Generational()
2. It
is ________ that a person filing a case under PIL should have a direct interest
in public interest litigation.
a. NECESSARY() b. NOT NECESSARY() c. iMPORTANT() d. VITAL()
3. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is
preplaced by Consumer Protection Act, ________
a. 2019 () b. 2014() c. 2020 () d. 2015()
4. Under Consumer Protection
Act 2019, the State Commission deals with consumer complaints, where the value
of goods/services and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________
crore.
a. 20() b. 30() c.
10() d. 15()
5. The Consumer Protection Act
2019 came into force with effect from ________
a. 20th JULY 2019() b. 21st AUGUST 2019(c. 20th
JULY 2020() d. 1sr APRIL 2020()
4. The Consumer Protection Act
2019, the District Forum deals with consumer complaints, where the value of goods/services
and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________ crore.
a. 1() b. 5() c. 10() d. 20()
5. Under the ‘Rights to ________’,
a consumer has the right to be protected against certain goods which are
dangerous to human life.
a. SAFETY() b. BE HEARD() c. CHOOSE() d. BE INFORMED()
6. Under the ‘Rights to ________’,
a consumer has the right to register complaints and grievances relating to
products which he/she uses.
a. CHOOSE() b. BE INFORMED() c. SAFETY() d.
BE HEARD()
7. The Consumer Protection
Act, the National Commission at the national level deals with complaints of
amount that exceeds INR ___________ crore.
a. 20() b. 10() c. 15() d. 25()
8. The Essential Services
Maintenances Act ensures the delivery of certain services, which if ________
would affect the normal life of the people.
a. PROVIDED() b. GUARDED() c. DELIVERED()d. OBSTRUCTED()
9.PIL means, litigation filed
in a ________ for the protection of public interest that generally affects a
group of persons or society at large.
a. STATE LITIGATION
DEPARTMENT() b. CENTRAL GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENT()
c. COURT OF LAW() d.
STATE SECRETARIATE()
10. The Right to Information
Act, 2005 came into force with effects from _________ 2005.
a. 26th AUGUST() b. 2nd OCTOBER() c. 20th JULY()d. 15th
JUNE()
11. The main objective of PIL
is to protect __________
a. PUBLIC INFORMATION() b.
GOVERNMENT INTEREST()
c. PRIVATE INTEREST() d.
PUBLIC INTEREST()
12. The concept of Citizens’
Charter was first introduced and implemented in the ________ in 1991.
a. UNITED STATES OF AMERICA() b
INDIA()
c. UNITED KINGDOM() d.
PORTUGAL()
13. _________ is the first state in India to introduce the Right to
Public Services Act in 2010.
a. UTTAR PRADESH()b. MADHYA
PRADESH()c. MAHARASHTRA()d. GOA()
14. ____________ is the
facility set up by the central government organisations to provide information
to citizens about their programmes/ schemes, rules and procedures, etc.
A. Information centre()b.
Information and facilitation counter ()
C. Information website() d. Programmes information()
15. The Indian Contract Act
was passed in the year ____________
a. 1872 () b. 1990 () c. 1986 ()d. 2020()
16. In India, Citizens’
Charter was implanted in the year ___________
a. 2000 () b. 2005 () c.
1999 ()d. 1997()
17. The Right to Information
Act was first introduced in __________ state.
a. GUJARAT() b. TAMIL NADU () c.
GOA() d. RAJASTHAN()
18. PIL refers to ___________
A. Public interest
litigation()b. Public information litigation()c. Police
information litigation()d. Private information litigation()
19. In India, the Citizens’
Charter was first introduced in the _________ sector.
a. EDUCATION()b.AIRLINES() c. BANKING() d. INSURANCE()
20. The Department of
Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) as set up by Government of
India as a ________ agency relating to Citizens’ Charters.
a. IMPLEMENTING()b.
PROVIDING() c. COORDINATING()d.
SERVING()
21. A citizens’ charter is a
document setting out the rights of _________ which guarantees the right to
redress on occasions where public services failed to meet certain standards.
a. CITIZENS()b. SENIOR
CITIZENS() c. MALES() d. FEMALES()
22. Under the ‘Right to
_______’, a consumer has the right to buy the products of his/her choice.
a. BE INFORMED() b. CHOOSE()c. BE HEARD()d. SAFETY()
23. The term ‘ecology’ was
termed by German biologist ________
A. Ernst hackle() b. Angela merkel() c. Ernest borges() d. Boris
merkel()
24. The Universal Declaration
of Human Rights was first adopted in_________. Well before environmental
concerns were raised.
a. 1978() b. 1968 () c. 1958() d. 1948()
25. The ________ states
“whoever is responsible for the damage to the environment should bear the costs
associated with it.”
a. PPP() b. SDG() c. MDG() d. ECD()
26. _________ describes
movements and philosophies that link feminism with ecology
A. Feminism()b. Fem-philosophy()c.
Ecofeminism() d. Movement
philosophy()
27. ___________ ecology is the
study of the relationships between political, economic and social factors with
environmental issues and changes.
a. ENVIRONMENTAL() b. SOCIAL() c. ECONOMIC() d. POLITICAL()
28. The concept of ‘Extended
Producer Responsibility was first described by _________.’
A. Thomas edison()b.ernst
havckle() c. Thomas lindquist() d. Stan rowe()
29. __________ coined the term
‘deep ecology’.
A. Paul taylor ()b. Arne naess() c. Stan rowe() d. John passmore()
30. Population ecology studies
the dynamics of population of a ____________ species.
A. Single() b. Human() c. Several() d. Animal()
31. ________ equity refers to
the need for a just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations,
and fair and impartial treatment of future generations.
A. Intra-generational() b. Eco-generational()
C. Intergenerational() d. Generational()
32. _________ principle is
referred to the responsibility of polluter to bear costs associated with the
damage to the environment.
A. Polluter costs() b.
Polluter bans()
C. Polluter gains() d.
Polluter pays()
33. _________ focuses on the biotic community as
a whole and strives to maintain ecosystem compositions and ecological
processes.
A. Ecocentrism() b.
Anthropocentrism()
C. Biocentrism() d. Ecofeminism()
34. ________ ecology studies
the flows of energy and matter through the biotic and abiotic components of the
ecosystems.
A. Systems() b. Political() c. Ecosystem() d. Landscape()
35. __________ seeks to shift
the responsibility of costs dealing with waste from government to the
manufacturers producing it.
A. Polluter pays principle() b. Extended producer
responsibility()
C. Sustainable development
principle() d. Waste management
responsibility()
36. ________ argues that the
natural world is a subtle balance of complex inter-relationships in which the
existence of organisms is dependent on the existence of others within
ecosystem.
A. Deep ecology() b. Ecofeminism() c. Ecocentrism() d.
Biocentrism()
37. Community ecology focuses
on the interactions between species with an _________ community.
a. Social() b.
Ecological() c. Economic() d. Environmental()
38. __________ refers to
comprehensive science of the relationship of the organism with the environment.
A. Botany() b.
Ecology()
C. Environmental
relationships() d. Organic science()
39. ___________ equity is
concerned with equity between people of the same generation.
A. Intragenerational() b. Generational()
C. Intergenerational() d. Eco-generational()
40. The sustainable
development goals are for the period from 2015 to _________.
A. 2020() b. 2030() c.
2025() d.
2050()
41. __________ is a nature
centered approach.
A. Anthropocentrism() b. Ecofeminism()
C. Biocentrism() d. Ecocentrism()
42. ____________ refers to
avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an
ecological balance.
A. Morality() b. Sustainability() c. Ecology() d.
Eco-depletion()
43. __________ grant morals standing
to all living beings.
A. Anthropocentrism() b. Ecofeminism()
C. Biocentrism() d.
Ecocentrism()
44. The sustainable
development goals were developed to replace the __________ goals.
A. Economic development() b. Sustainability()
C. Millennium
development () d. Socio-economic()
45. Wwf stands for world
wildlife _________.
A. Finance() b. Fund() c.
Forms() d. Nature()
46. __________ ecology
examines processes and relationship across multiple ecosystems or very large
geographic areas.
A. Geographic() b. Evolutionary() c. Landscape() d.
Population()
47. ___________ refers to
avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an
ecological balance.
A. Morality() b. Sustainability() c. Ecology() d. Eco-depletion()
48. The __________ declaration
on environment and development was approved by the united nations in 1992.
A. Kyoto() b. London() c. Delhi() d. Rio()
49.____________ is a life
centered approach views animals as important living beings.
A. Anthropocentrism() b. Ecofeminism()
C. Biocentrism() d. Ecocentrism()
50. The ___________ is a
strategy to cope with possible risks where scientific understanding is yet
incomplete, such as the risk of nanotechnology, genetically modified organisms
and systematic insecticides.
A. Polluter pays principle() b. Precautionary principle()
C. Extended producer
responsibility() d. Sustainable
development principle()
CLASS: S.Y.B.A.F.-IV SEM REGULAR
SUB : Financial account
MCQ
(50 QUESTION
1.The profit earned after
incorporation _________
a. is deferred revenue income earned by the
company()
b. is normal revenue earned by the
company()
c. is capital profit()
d. belong to the vendor of the erstwhile
business()
2.For the purpose of computing
profit prior to incorporation.
a. gross profit is divided in time ratio()
b. gross profit is divided in sales ratio()
c. gross profit is assumed to have arisen
entirely in the post in-corporation period()
d. gross profit is assumed to have arisen
entirely in the pre in-corporation period()
3. If the gross profit ratio
has changed due to changed in sales price for the purpose of
Computing profit prior to incorporation.
a.
gross profit can not be divided in sales
ratio()
b.
gross profit can be divided in sales ratio()
c.
gross profit should be divided inratio sales
price()
d.
gross profit should be divided inratio of cost
per unit()
4.The gross profit is divided
in the ratio of time ,for the purpose of computing profit
Prior to incorporation.
a.
If the details regarding stock are not
available()
b.
If the details regarding cost per unit are not
available()
c.
If the details regarding sales are not
available()
d.
If the details regarding purchase are not available()
5.Fore computing
pre-incorporation profit ,interest to vendor on purchase consideration.
a. is
treated as pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as post-incorporation expenditure()
c. is allocated in sales ratio()
d.
none of the above()
6.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,fees to directors.
a. is
treated as pre-incorporation expenditure()
b. is
treated as post-incorporation expenditure()
c. is
allocated in time ratio()
d. is allocated in sales ratio()
7.For computing
pre-incorporation profits, discount on debenture w/o.
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b. is
treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
8.For computing
pre-incorporation profits, share issue expenses W/O.
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b. is
treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
9.For computing
pre-incorporation profits, Dividend declared on share is______
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b. is
treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
10.For computing
pre-incorporation profits, freight outward_________
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is allocated in time ratio()
c.
is allocated in sales ratio()
d.
is allocate in purchase ratio()
11.For computing
pre-incorporation profits, depreciation____
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c. is
allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
12.For computing
pre-incorporation profits, audit fees____
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c. is
allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
13.For computing
pre-incorporation profits, income- tax__________
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d. is
allocated in ratio of taxable income/profit
14.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,salaries to vendor________
a. is
treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
15.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,salaries to directors ____________
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b. is
treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
16.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,interest on debenture_______
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b. is
treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
17.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,fixed expenses are__________
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c. is
allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
18.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,variable expenses are__________
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d. is
allocated in sales ratio()
19.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,postage______
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b. is
treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c. is
allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
20.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,insurance is________
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c. is
allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
21.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,discount allowed is________
a. is
treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d. is
allocated in sales ratio()
22.For computing
pre-incorporation profits ,sales commission is______
a. is treated as a pre-incorporation
expenditure()
b.
is treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d. is
allocated in sales ratio()
23.For computing
pre-incorporation profits , appropriations by company is______
a.
is treated as a pre-incorporation expenditure()
b. is
treated as a post-incorporation expenditure()
c.
is allocated in time ratio()
d.
is allocated in sales ratio()
24.profit prior to
incorporation are available for_______
a.
payment of dividend ()
b.
payment of interest on debentures()
c.
payment of cost of fixed assets()
d. none
of the above()
25.profit prior to
incorporation should be transferred to__________
a.
profit and loss A/c()
b.
capital reserve ()
c.
general reserve()
d.
none of the above()
26.AS 11 define foreign
operation as an entity whose activities are based in a foreign country viz.
a.
subsidiary of the reporting enterprises()
b.
joint venture of the reporting enterprises()
c.
branch of reporting enterprises()
d.
all the above.
27.If a foreign operation
which sales goods imported from the reporting enterprises and remits
The proceeds to the reporting enterprises
, it is ____________
a.
An integral foreign operation()
b.
A none integral foreign operation()
c.
Either A&B()
d.
Neither A&B()
e.
28.If the change in the
exchange rate affects the individual monetary items held by the
foreign operation rather than the
reporting enterprises net investment in that operation it is
a.
An integral foreign operation()
b.
A none integral foreign operation()
c.
Indian integral operation()
d.
All of the above()
e.
29.If the change in the
exchange rate affects the reporting enterprises net investment in
that operation rather than the individual
monetary items held by the foreign operation it it
a.
An integral foreign operation()
b.
A none integral foreign operation()
c.
Indian integral operation()
d.
A&B()
30.If transaction with the
reporting enterprises are not a high
proportion of the foreign operation
Activities it is______
A.
An integral foreign operation()
B.
A none integral foreign operation()
C.
Indian integral operation()
D.
A&B()
31.If the activities of the
foreign operation are finance mainly from its own operation
Or local borrowing rather then from the
reporting enterprises it is_______
a.
An integral foreign operation()
b.
A none integral foreign operation()
c.
Indian integral operation()
d.
All()
32.If the foreign operation
sales are mainly in currency other than the reporting currencies it is
a.
An integral foreign operation()
b.
A none integral foreign operation()
c.
Indian integral operation()
d.
All()
33.AS classifies the foreign
branch in to________
a.
(1)An integral foreign operation (2)A none integral foreign
operation()
b.
(1)Debtors method (2)stock and
debtors method()
c.
(1)Cost price (2)invoice price()
d.
none of the above()
34.Monetary items of integral
foreign operation at the balance sheet are translated at______
a.
exchange rate at the date of transaction()
b.
closing exchange rate()
c.
average exchange rate during the year()
d.
exchange rate on the date of valuation of fair value()
35.Tangible fixed assets of integral foreign
operation carried at fair value are translated at
a.
exchange rate at the date of purchase of assets()
b.
closing exchange rate()
c.
average exchange rate during the year()
d.
exchange rate on the date of valuation of fair value()
36.Cost of inventory of
integral foreign operation is translated at______
a.
closing exchange rate()
b.
average exchange rate during the year()
c.
exchange rate that is existed when the cost of inventory was incurred()
d.
opening exchange rate()
37.Exchange difference of
integral foreign operation is______
a.
transferred to suspense account()
b. transferred to profit and loss account()
c.
transferred to foreign currency translation reserve()
d.
transferred to net investment in integral foreign operation account()
38.Monetary items of
none-integral foreign operation at the balance sheet
Are translated at ________
a. exchange rate at the date of purchase
of assets()
b.
closing exchange rate()
c.
average exchange rate during the year()
d.
exchange rate on the date of valuation of fair value()
39.Non-monetory items of
none-integral foreign operation at the balance sheet_____
a.
exchange rate at the date of translation()
b.
closing exchange rate()
c.
average exchange rate during the year()
d.
exchange rate on the date of valuation of fair value()
40.Exchange difference of
non-integral foreign operation is_____
a.
transferred to suspense account()
b.
transferred to profit and loss account()
c.
transferred to foreign currency translation reserve()
d.
transferred to net investment in integral foreign operation account()
41.Any goodwill or capital
reserve arising on the acquisition of a non-integral foreign
Operation is__________
a.
exchange rate at the date of translation()
b.
closing exchange rate()
c.
average exchange rate during the year()
d.
exchange rate on the date of valuation of fair value()
42.A contingent liability
disclosed in the financial statement of a non-integral foreign operation
Is translated at__________
a.
exchange rate at the date of translation()
b.
closing
exchange rate()
c.
average
exchange rate during the year()
d.
average exchange rate during the year()
43.____________ types of
branch.
a.
Two() b. four() c. three() d.
six()
44.Foreigan branch deal with
____________AS.
a.
AS11() b. AS13() c.
AS15() d. AS12()
44.Salaries deal with
_________ rate.
a.
average rate() b. closing rate() c.
opening rate() d. fixed rate()
45._________ types of foreign
branch.
a.
two() b. four() c.
three() d. five()
46.Opening stock is deal
___________ rate.
a.
closing rate() b. opening rate() c.
fixed rate() d. average rate()
47.Deperication is
deal________ rate.
a.
fixed() b. opening() c.
closing() d. average()
48.IFO stand for_____
a. integral foreign operation() b.
integral function operation()
d. internal foreign operation()
d.
internet foreign operation()
49.___________ rate applicable
on fixed assets.
a.
fixed rate() b. average rate() c.
closing rate() d. opening rate()
50._____________ rate
applicable on creditors.
a.
opening rate() b. closing rat() c.
average rate() d. fixed rate()
CLASS: SYBAF-IV SEM
REGULAR
SUB : Management
Account
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1.
For
the purpose of Cash Flow Statement, ‘Cash Equivalents’ include
a.Bank fixed deposit
for 30 days() c. money market
instruments()
c.treasury bills() d. all
the above()
2.
The
principal revenue-producing activities of the enterprise
a.Investing
Activity() b. Operating
Activity()
c.Financing
Activity() d. A&B()
3.
The
acquisition and disposal of long term assets and investments
a.Investing Activity() b. Operating Activity()
c.Financing
Activity() d.
A&C()
4.
Acquiring
and selling of a subsidiary
a.Investing Activity() b. Operating Activity()
c.Financing
Activity() d. B&C()
5.
The
activities resulting in changes in the size and composition of the owner’s
capital and borrowings of the enterprise
a.Investing
Activity() b. Operating
Activity()
c.Financing Activity() d. Production activities()
6.
Cash
sales of goods-in-trade will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating
cash flow() b. Investing
cash flow()
c.Financing cash flow() d. Cash or cash equivalents()
7.
Cash
paid to suppliers of raw materials will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash flow()
a.
c.Financing
cash flow() d. Cash or
cash equivalents()
8.
Cash payment of salaries and wages to
employeeswill be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing
cash flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
9.
Cash
payment to acquire a fixed assets, say, machinery will be shown in the Cash
Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash
flow()
c.Financing cash flow() d. Cash or cash equivalents()
10.
Cash
proceeds from issuing shares at a premium will be shown in the Cash Flow
Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash
flow()
c. Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
11.
Payment
of dividends will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash
flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
12.
Interest
received on investments will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash
flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or
cash equivalents()
13.
Interest
paid in debentures will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
14.
Dividends
received on shares of others companies held as investments will be shown in the
Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash flow() b. Investing cash flow()
c. Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
15.
Cash
payment of a long-term loan will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash
flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or
cash equivalents()
16.
Payment
of income-tax will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash
flow()
c.Financing cash flow() d. Cash or cash equivalents()
17.
Purchase
of Building will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
18.
Proceeds
from issue of Pref. share capital will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
19.
Cash
Sales of scrap will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash
flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
20.
New
Bank Loan will be shown in the Cash Flow
Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash equivalents()
21.
Sale
of Land will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash flow()
c.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
22.
Cheques
received from Debtors will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash flow() b.
Investing cash flow()
b. Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
23.
Purchase
of Govt. Securities will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash flow()
c. Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
24.
Redemption
of Preference Shares will be shown in the Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash flow() b. Investing cash flow()
b.Financing cash flow() d. Cash or cash equivalents()
25. Sale of Investment will be shown in the
Cash Flow Statement as
a.Operating cash
flow() b. Investing cash flow()
b.Financing cash
flow() d. Cash or cash
equivalents()
26. The total Current Assets without deducting
the Current Liabilities.
a.Gross Working
Capital() b. Net Working
Capital()
c.Permanent Working Capital() d. Temporary Working Capital()
27. Current Assets – Current Liabilities
a.Gross Working
Capital() b. Net Working
Capital()
b.Permanent Working Capital() d. Temporary Working Capital()
28. The minimum amount of Working Capital
required to enable the concern to operate at the lowest level of activity
a.Gross Working Capital() b. Net Working Capital()
c. Permanent Working Capital() d. Temporary Working Capital()
29. Permanent Working Capital is also known as
a. Gross Working Capital() b. Net Working Capital()
c. Core Working Capital() d. Fixed Capital()
30. When activity is at higher level, the
concern needs more working capital, which is known as
a. Gross Working
Capital() b. Net Working
Capital()
c. Permanent Working
Capital() d. Temporary Working
Capital()
31. Cash Working Capital includes
a. Fixed assets less depreciation() b. Debtors at sales value()
c. Debtors at sales less profit margin() d. Creditors at purchase cost less profit
margin()
32.Cash Working Capital includes
a. Fixed assets less depreciation() b. Cost of inventory excluding
depreciation()
c. Cost of inventory including
depreciation() d. None of the above()
33. The amount of funds invested in
current assets is called ___________
a. Gross Working Capital() b. Net Working Capital()
c. Surplus capital() d. None of these()
34.Under the gross working capital concept the working capital is equal
equal to ___________
a. Total current liabilities() b.Surplus current assets ()
c. Total current assets() d. None of these()
35. The term net working capital refers to ____________
a. The excess of the current assets over
current liabilities() b. The liquid assets()
c.The total current assets less
provisions() d.None of these()
36.____________ will ensure high return on investment.
a. Adequate working capital() b. Surplus working capital()
b .Shortage of working capital() d.None of these()
37._________ refers to idle funds
which earns no return.
a.Shortage of working
capital() b.excess working capital()
c.variable working
capital() d.fixed working
capital()
38.Shortage of working
capital may result in __________
a.poor credit standing() b.more cash discount()
c.more trade discount()d.A&B()
39.Net operating cycle
can be delayed by_________
a.increase in WIP period()b.decrease
in raw material storage period()
c.increase in credit
payment period()d.both A&C()
40.gross working
capital means __________
a. total assets() b. total current assets() c. total current liability() d.
fixed assets minus current assets()
41.Net working capital
is equal to _________
a. current assets-current liabilities() b. fixed assets-current assets()
b. current assets-cash() d. long term
loan-short term loans()
42.which of the
following is not an items of current liabilities?
a. sundry creditors() b. advance for
customers()
b. hire purchase dues() d. debenture()
43.Average stock of raw
materials=Rs.76000.
Annual consumption of raw material
=Rs.720000.
1 year=360 days
The raw material storage period is
a.36days() b. 38days() c. 40days() d.42days()
44.consider the
following data.
Gross operating cycle 80days
Net operating cycle 55days
Raw material storage period 40days
Conversion period 2days
Finish goods storage period 20days
The average collection period is
a.-87days b. -37days c. 62days d. 18days
45.What is the cash
conversion cycle for a firm with a receivable period of 45 days , a payable
Period of 50 days and an inventory period
of 65 days?
a.30 days() b.
35 days() c. 65 days() d. 60 days()
46.Calculate the raw
material storage period in operating cycle.
a. 241 days() b. 221 days() c. 265 days() d. 280 days()
47.the work in process
conversion period is________
a. 60 days() b. 62 days() c. 53 days() d. 56 days()
48.The finished goods
storage period is_________
a. 36 days() b. 43 days() c. 50 days() d. 29 days()
49.The average
collection period is _____
a. 55 days() b. 47 days() c. 52 days() d. 57 days ()
50.The average payment
period is ___________
a. 156 days() b. 161 days() c. 170 days() d. 171 days()
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