SYBBI - SEM IV - MCQ
MCQ – Multiple
Choice Questions...
SAMPLE MCQ............
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI
SYLLABUS
Will be helpful to
regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online
examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V
class of students.
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ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD
CLASS: SYBBI
SUBJECT:COST ACCOUNTING
1.A ____________ cost is the cost which is directly
related to the output.
A] fixed cost b]variable cost c]sunk costs
d]imputed cost
2.The three major elements of product costs are all except
A] Direct materials B] factory overheads C] direct
labour D]Indirect labor
3. A _________
cost is the cost which is incurred for an accounting period and which tends to be unaffected by
fluctuations in the levels of activity.
A] fixed cost b]variable cost c]sunk costs
d]imputed cost
4.__________ cost
is a hypothetical or notional cost not involving any actual cash
payments and computed only for decision making.
A] fixed cost b]variable cost c]sunk costs
d]imputed cost
5. __________ cost is historical cost which is
incurred in the past and not relevant to the decision required to be made by
management at present.
A] fixed cost b]variable cost c]sunk costs d]imputed cost.
6. _____________ deals with classification of costs.
A] CAS-1 B] CAS-2
C] CAS-3 D]CAS-4
7._____________ is the value of the alternatives
foregone by adopting a particular strategy or employing resources in a specific
manner.
A] Opportunity cost b]variable cost
c]sunk costs d]imputed cost.
8. _____________ cost is the aggregate of variable
cost.
A] Opportunity cost b]Marginal costs c]sunk costs
d]imputed cost.
9. ___________ is the cost which contain both fixed and variable elements.
A] Opportunity cost b]Marginal costs c]semi variable costs d]step cost.
10. __________ is a cost which is fixed in nature but
only within certain levels of activity.
A] Opportunity cost b]Marginal costs c]semi variable costs d]step cost.
11. Direct materials + direct labour + direct expenses
= _________.
A] Works cost
B] Cost of production C] prime cost D] Cost of sales
12.Prime cost + factory overheads +Administration
overhead = _________
A] Works cost B]
Cost of production C] total sales D] Cost of sales
13. Total cost + profit = _____________
A] Works cost
B] Cost of production C] prime cost D] total sales
14. The process of ascertainment of costs is known as
____________.
A] costing B] cost reporting C] cost control d]cost analysis
15. The guidance and regulation by executive action of
the costs of operating an undertaking is
known as
A] costing B] cost reporting C] cost control
d]cost analysis
16. An example of fixed cost is ___________
A] materials consumed B] factory power C] rent
d] packing material
17.A cost per unit which increases or decreases when
volume of output increases or decreases is known as ___________
A] fixed cost b]variable
cost c]sunk costs d]imputed cost
18. Cost of production – administration overheads =
______________
A] Prime cost B]cost of sales C]works cost
D]work in progress
19. An example of variable cost is__________
A] Rent B]Depreciation C] property taxes D] packing
material
20. Form of specific order costing where work is
undertaken to customer’s special requirements and each order is comparatively
of short duration .
A]Job order costing B] Batch costing C] contract costing D] process
costing
21.Form of specific order costing which consists of a
group of similar articles which maintain its identity throughout one or more stages of production.
A]Job order costing B] Batch costing C]
contract costing D] process costing
22.which of the following items is not included in
preparation of cost sheet?
A] carriage inward B]purchase returns C] sales
commission D] Interest paid
23. which of the following items is not included in
preparation of cost sheet?
A] loss on sale of assets B]purchase returns C] sales commission D] salaries
24. Sales Rs.1,20,000, Profit 20% on sales. Cost of
sales are Rs. __________
A] 1,24,000 B] 1,00,000 C]96,000 D] 1,44,000
25. Sales Rs.1,50,000, Profit 20% on sales. Cost of
sales are Rs. __________
A] 1,20,000 B] 1,80,000 C]90,000 D] 1,40,000
26. Prime cost Rs.5,00,000 , direct labour Rs.1,20,000
, direct expenses Rs.7000. cost of raw material consumed is _________
A] 6,27,000 B] 3,73,000 C] 3,80,000 D] 1,27,000
27.Prime cost Rs.4,20,000 , direct labour Rs.1,10,000
, direct expenses Rs.9000. cost of raw material consumed is _________
A] 5,39,000 B] 3,73,000 C] 3,01,000 D] 3,27,000
28. ___________ are expenses incurred for general management of the organisation
A] Production costs B]Administration costs
C]Selling costs D] research costs
29.__________ are the costs which are incurred in
handling a product from the time it is completed in the works until it reaches
the ultimate consumer.
A] Production costs B]Administration costs C]Selling
costs D] Distribution costs
30.If the level of activity increases,
A] Variable cost per unit and total fixed cost
increase
B] fixed cost per unit
and total variable cost increase
C]Total variable cost will increase and fixed cost per
unit will decrease
D] Total variable cost will decrease and fixed cost
per unit will increase
31. If the level of activity decreases,
A] Variable cost per unit and total fixed cost
increase
B] fixed cost per unit
and total variable cost increase
C]Total variable cost will increase and fixed cost per
unit will decrease
D] Total variable cost will decrease and fixed cost
per unit will increase
32. Direct labour cost Rs.17500 being 125% of work
overheads. Works overheads are ____________
A]14,000
B]39,375 C]15,909 d]13,125
33. __________ means the payment made to the
employees, permanent or temporary, for their services.
A] material cost
B]Labour cost C] Direct costs D]Indirect costs
34. Cost of sales is Rs.1,20,000 and profit is 20% on
cost then profit =__________
A] 20,000 B]24,000 C] 20,000 D] 40,000
35. Cost of sales is Rs.1,20,000 and profit is 20% on
cost then Total sales=__________
A] 2,20,000 B]1,44,000 C] 1,20,000 D] 1,40,000
36. Cost of Sales Rs.1,20,000, profit 20% on sales.
Profit is Rs. _________
A]20,000 B]25,000 C]30,000 D]50,000
37. __________ are the common cost of facilities or
services employed in the output of two
or more simultaneously produced or otherwise closely related operations,
commodities or services.
A] Operating costs B] Operation costs C]Joint costs
D]batch cost
38. Cost accounting is directed towards the needs of
A]Government B] External users C]Internal users
D]Shareholders
39. The functional classification of costs include the
following except
A]Prime costs B] Production costs C]Administration
costs D]Marketing costs
40. _____________ are inescapable costs which are
incurred which are essentially to be incurred
within the limits or norms provided for.
A]Unavoidable costs B]avoidable costs C]Normal costs D]Abnormal cost
41. Cost accounting standards are issued by ____________
A]ICSI B]ICAI C]ICWA D]RBI
42. which of the following items is not included in
preparation of cost sheet?
A] Salesman’s salaries B]Wages C]Dividend received
D]Factory rent
43. which of the following items is not included in
preparation of cost sheet?
A] income tax B]Wages
C]office expenses D]Factory rent
44.Which of the following is not a function of cost
accounting?
A]Cost ascertainment B]Cost control C]Decision making D]External
reporting
45. _____________ is an unusual or atypical cost whose occurrence is usually irregular and
unexpected and due to some abnormal situation of the production.
A]Unavoidable costs B]avoidable costs C]Normal costs D]Abnormal
cost
46. Indirect costs are known as __________
A] Variable costs B]overheads C]fixed costs
D]Marginal costs
47.Costs that change in response to alternative
courses of action are called __________
A] Relevant costs B]Differential costs C]Target
costs D]Sunk costs
48. ___________ deals with Material Cost.
A]CAS 5 B]CAS
6 C]CAS2 D]CAS 1
49. ___________ deals with overheads.
A]CAS 5 B]CAS
6 C]CAS2 D]CAS 3
50.___________ deals with direct expenses.
A]CAS 10 B]CAS 6
C]CAS2 D]CAS 3
SUB : ECONOMICS
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1. Repo
rate is the rate of interest paid by
a) People b) Commercial banks c) government d) central banks
2. Which
is the following measurements indicate how national income is distributed.
a) GDP b)GNP c) Per Capita Income d) NNP
3. The
four sector circular flow economy does not include
a) World
economy b) Financial Market c) Domestic Market d) crude oil reserves in oil wells
4. GNI
in an open economy is equal to
a) GDP
+ (X-M) b)GDP+ (X-M)+ R-P c)GDP+ N d)GDP +(R-P)
5. At
peak
a) Prosperity
begins b) Recession ends c) Prosperity ends d) Depression ends
6. According
to Keynes in order to increase employment we have to increase aggregate
a) Supply b)Demand c) output d) investment
7. The
MPS is the counterpart of
a) MPC b)APC c)APS
d) inflation
8. MEC
refers to what type of return from an investment
a) Actual
profit b) expected rate of
interest c) expected rate of
profit d) none of the above
9. What
is the value of multiplier if MPC is ½ ?
a) 3 b)
2 c) 4
d) 5
10. Which of the following
determine money supply
a) High
powered money b) Money multiplier c) Community choice d) All the above
11. According
to Keynes interest is
a) Price
paid for saving b) price paid for
investment c) price paid for parting with liquidity d)
paid in taxes
12. The
inverse of price level measures
a) Value
of money b) Inflation c) Deflation d) Multiplier
13. During
inflation
a) Value
of money increases b) value of
money declines c)value of money remain constant d) no change
14. Repo
rate is the rate of interest paid by
a) People b) Central banks c) Government d) Commercial banks
15. Monetary
policy aims at influencing
a) Availability
of money b) cost of money c)use of money d) none of the above
16. The
following is not a subject matter of macroeconomics
a) National
income accounting b) Law of demand
and supply c) Business cycle d) General price level
17. Which
of the following type of economy deals with rest of world
a) Open b)
closed c) only developed d) only developing
18. What
is the total money value of goods and services produced by the Nationals during
a given year
a)GDP b)NDP
c)GNI d) GNP
19. During
the expansion phase prices increase due to
a) Increase
in demand for goods and services b)
increase in wages c) increase in
profit d) all the features
20. The
point where the aggregate demand and aggregate supply curves intersect is
called
a) Total
demand b) effective demand c) equilibrium demand d) non equilibrium demand
21. Keynes
consumption function helps to invalidate
a) Keynes
theory b) fishers equation c) says law d) Employment theory
22. MEC
curve
a) Slopes
downwards b) remain constant c) doesn’t change a) slopes upwards
23. If
a part of an increase in income spent on imports the value of multiplier
a) Will
be low b)will
be high c)will not change d)will increase
24. Traditional
measure of money supply include
a) Demand
deposit b)time deposit c) currency and demand deposit d) currency and time deposit
25. The
Radcliff Committee suggested the miney supply should include
a) Loan b) liability of NBFI’s c) Time deposit d)funds lent by financial institutions
26. Demand
for transaction and precautionary motive is interest
a) Elastic b) unit elastic c) inelastic d) non elastic
27. Cambridge
k represent
a) Velocity
of circulation of money b) money
supply c) average price d)A proportion of real income held as cash
balances
28. In
cost push inflation the supply curve shifts to
a) Right b)left c) horizontally upward d) horizontally downward
29. Bank
interest is charged by
a) Commercial
banks b) central bank c) co operative bank d) government
30. When
CRR is increased bank reserves are
a) Increase b) remains same c) decrease d) no change is seen
31. Inflation
is beneficial to
a) Fixed
income group b) creditors c) government d)Business people
32. Which
of the following is not a direct cause of demand pull inflation
a) Scarcity
of raw materials b)
Deficit financing c) credit
creation d) raw material
33. Who
developed the Cambridge version of
quantity theory of money first
a) Adam
Smith b)J.S. Mill c) Alfred Marshall d) David Ricardo
34. In
Fisher’s equation which of the following is exogenously determined
a) P b)
T c) V d)
M
35. Transaction
motive is further sub divided into
a) Profit
and income b) Income and
business c) profit and business d)
speculative and precautionary
36. Demand
fkr speculative motive is referred to as demand for
a) Active
and idle cash balance b)
investment c) income d)Normal cash balance
37. The
broader measure of money supply adopted
by RBI is referred to as
a) Aggregate
monetary ratios b) Aggregate money
supply c) aggregate monetary
resources d) aggregate monetary measurements
38. The
average number of times a unit of money is used for making payments of final
goods and services is known as.
a) Transaction
velocity b) Monetary velocity c) Income velocity d) growth velocity
39. In
what way the multiplier is related to MPS
a) Directly
related to b) not related to c) reciprocal of d) equal to
40. The
value of multiplier is inversely related to
a) MPC b) MPS c) APC d) APS
41. MEC
refers to what type of return from an investment
a) Actual
profit b)normal profit c) expected rate of interest d) expected rate ld profit
42. According
to Keynes as Income Increase both MPC AND APC
a) Rise b) fall c) remain constant d) is zero
43. Which
of the following factors consists of those motives which induce individuals
from spending out of their income.
a) Economic b) social
c) subjective d)
political
44. Which
of the following curve is a schedule of minimum amount of proceed to provide
various level of employment
a) Aggregate
supply b)
aggregate demand c) employment d) total spending
45. At
through
a) Economic
activities are at high level b)
Economic activities are at lowest lebel c)
economic activities are at average level
d) Economic activities are same
46. Which
of the following formulas is used to calculate GGDP
a) GDP
+ Net factor income from abroad b) GDP
+C + I +G c) GDP - Depreciation d) GDP – net natural capital
consumption
47. Which
of the following economy is in equilibrium when investment is equal to sabing
a) Closed b) open
c) Developing d) developed
48. In circular flow economy firms supply
a) Labour b) good and services c) land d) captital
49. Which branch of macroeconomics specifically focuses on problems of developing economiesa)
Public finance b) monetary economic c) Trade cycle theory d) Development economics
50. Which of the following school of thought in macroeconomics focuses on the role of money supply and central bank.
a) Monetarism b) Development economics c) Classical school d)Keynesian School
SUB : 5.Entrepreneurship
Management
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1. Entrepreneurship
involves …………………. As its activity are subject to uncertainties.
a. Innovation
b. Risk
taking
c. Planning
d. Creativity
2. An
entrepreneur should have …………… skills to maintain good human relations.
a. Technical
b. Communication
c. Leadership
d. Human
relation
3. …………….
Is the ability to bring something new into existence.
a. Innovation
b. Creativity
c. Entrepreneurship
d. leadership
4. innovation
is the specific tool of …………
a. intrapreneur
b. businessman
c. entrepreneur
d. banker
5. ……….
Skills is used to measure risk.
a. Financial
b. Human
relation
c. Diagnostic
d. Managerial
6. The
project report is a summery of ……………….
a. Project
planning
b. Project
report
c. Business
plan
d. Business
report
7. SWOT
mean to be used during the ………… stage of strategic planning
a. Proposal
b. Second
c. Final
d. Second
8. ……………….
Is a process of gathering, analysis and dispensing information for tactical or
strategic purpose.
a. Environmental
scanning
b. Swot
ananlysis
c. Feasibility
study
d. Project
report
9. The
………….is a brief outline of the basic operation of the organisation.
a. Operational
plan
b. Business
c. Financial
d. Managerial
10. …………..
contains the provisions regarding the legal formalities for setting up of a
private limited company.
a. The
Indian Companies Act , 1956
b. Partnership
act 1932
c. MSMED
ACT 2006
d. Factories
Act
11. Which
one of the following theory has the attribute of moderate risk taking as a
function of skill, not chance?
a.
Need for independence
b.
Need for achievement
c.
Need for affiliation
d.
Need for authority
12. Foundation companies are formed
from:
a.
Fashion
b.
Research and development
c.
Most popular business
d.
winding up company
13.
All of the following are the broad categories of External forces
EXCEPT:
a.
Economic forces
b.
Internal forces
c.
Technological forces
d.
Competitive forces
14.
A ______________ is a professional money manager who makes risk
investment from a pool of equity capital to obtain a high rate of return on
investments.
a.
venture capitalist
b.
entrepreneur
c.
businessman
d.
buyer
15.
Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new
ideas because:
a.
They are familiar with the needs of the market
b.
They earn a handsome profit from new business
c.
They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
d.
They have well-developed sales force
16.
The business plan should be prepared by
a.
Entrepreneurs
b.
Consultants
c.
Engineers
d.
Small business administration services
17. Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?
a)
Business model b) Modeling c) Creative
flexibility d) Innovation
18. Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and
also help to market new products?
a) Existing products and services b) Federal government c)
Distribution Channels d) Consumers
19. Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire
experience in an international market before making a major commitment?
a)
Merger b) Minority Interest c) Joint venture d) Majority interest
20.
GATT is established in 1947, under:
a)
German leadership b) U.S. leadership c) French leadership d) U.K.
leadership
21. The entrepreneur was distinguished from capital provider in:
a) Middle ages b) 17th
century c) 18th century d) 19th and 20th century
22. A person who managed large project was termed as the
entrepreneur in the _________.
a) Earliest period b) Middle
ages c) 17th century d) 19th and 20th century
23. What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities
without regard to resources they currently control?
a) Startup management b) Entrepreneurship c) Financial
analysis d) Feasibility planning
24. Having less than 50 percent of equity share in an international
venture is called:
a) Joint Venture b) Majority
interest c) Minority interest d) Exporting
25. Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the
entrepreneur with managerial control is called:
a) Joint venture b) Majority
interest c) Horizontal merger c) Diversified activity merger
26.
Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products
that over time make current products obsolete?
a.
New business model b) Anatomization c) None of the given options d) Creative
destruction
27.
Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing U.S companies
to focus on new product development and increased productivity?
a) Entrepreneurship b) Hyper competition
c) Governmental laws d) Organizational culture
28.
Which of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing?
Entrepreneurship
b) Intrapreneurship c) Act of stating a new venture d) Offering new
products
by an existing company
29.
Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are known as
which of the following?
a) Moral-support network b) Role model
c) Professional support network d) Support system
30.
The activity which occurs when the new venture is started is called:
a) Motivation b) Business skills c) Departure
point d) Goal orientation
31.
The level at which an individual is viewed by society is called:
a) Financial status b) Qualification c) Social
status d) Achievement
32.
Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to
their familiarity with the needs of market?
a) Existing
products and services b) Distribution channels c) Federal government d)
Consumers
33.
Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:
a) They earn a handsome profit from new
business b) They are familiar with the needs of the market c) They do
not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss d) They have well-developed sales force
34.
Which one of the following is the most important characteristic of a successful
business website?
a)
Innovation b) Speed c) Graphics d) Products
35. Which one of the following is the next stage
to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?
a) Idea Stage b) Product Planning Stage c)
Product Development Stage d) Test Marketing Stage
36. SBA stands for:
a)
Small business accountants b) Small business administration c) Small business
adequacy d) Small business advisors
37.
Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a ne w venture
a) To identify possible sources of funds b) To
see if there are possible barriers to success c) To estimate the expected
sales d) To explore potential customers
38.
A Micro Enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery
does not exceed (According to MSMED Act, 2006):
(a)
Rs. 15 Lakh (b) Rs. 20 Lakh (c) Rs. 25 Lakh (d) Rs. 30 Lakh
39.
EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Programmes) is required to help:
(a) Existing entrepreneurs (b) First
generation entrepreneurs (c) Future generations entrepreneurs (d) next
generation
40.
Given below is not From SWOT Analysis
a.
Strengths
b.
weakness
c.
opportunity
d.
Political
41.
…………… is a summary of project planning.
a.
project appraisal
b.
Project report
c.
Planning
d.
organising
42. Project report shows…. Of a project.
a.
appearance
b.
knowledge
c.
value
d.
Feasibility
42.
…………………. Is a process of gathering, analysing, and dispensing information
for tactical or strategical purposes.
a.
Environment condition
b.
EVS Development
c.
Environmental Scanning
d.
GDP
43.
A ……………………. Describes all the relavant
external and internal elements involved in starting a new venture.
a.
Business plan
b.
Business report
c.
summary
d.
Flow chart
44.
The Environment protection Act, ……..
a.
1990
b.
1992
c.
1995
d.
1986
45.
Given below is NOT a quality of Entrepreneur.
a.
risk bearing
b.
good decision making
c.
problem solving
d.
Lazy
46.
Theory of innovation is given by …………..
a.
David Mc clelland
b.
Marshall
c.
Joseph Schumpeter
d.
peter drucker
47.
MCCLELLAND has given below theory …………
a.
innovation theory
b.
ERP theory
c.
Maslow’s theory
d. Need for Achievement theory
48.
An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be called
a.
a leader
b.
a manager
c.
a professional
d.
an entrepreneur
49.
A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business
name and sell its products or services is known as………………..
a.
a co operative
b.
a franchising
c.
a sole trader
d.
partnership
50.
. The use of informal networks by entrepreneurs to gather information is known
as _______.
a.
Secondary research
b.
Entrepreneurial networking
c.
Informal parameters
d.
Marketing
SUB : FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1) Which of the following is an item of
current assets?
a) bank overdraft
b) receivables
c) outstanding expenses
d) short term loan taken
2) Name the committee appointed by RBI to
recommend working capital financing.
a) srikrishna committee
b) P.L. Tandon committee
c) K.K. Birla committee
d) joint parliamentary committee
3) What is the most appropriate goal of the
firm?
a) shareholder wealth maximization
b) profit maximization
c) stakeholders maximization
d) EPS maximization
4) Interest on debenture is paid out of
_______
a) contribution
b) sales
c) EBIT
d) EBT
5) operating leverage is used to measure
________.
a) financial risk
b) business risk
c) market risk
d) economic risk
6) The objective of operating leverage is
to magnify the effect of changes in sales on ____ .
a) EBIT
b) EBT
c) contribution
d) EAT
7) The term working capital gap means
a) current assets minus current
liabilities
b) current assets plus current liabilities
c) current assets multiple current
liabilities
d) current assets divided current
liabilities
8) Inventories are also termed as
_________.
a) stock
b) fixed assets
c) current assets
d) shares
9) Debenture carry _____ charge.
a) fixed
b) variable
c) fluctuations
d) semi variable
10) Risk and _______ always goes hand in
hand.
a) losses
b) expanses
c) profits
d) income
11) The most crucial financial decisions of
the Organization are taken by ______.
a) bord of directors
b) shareholders
c) Debenture holders
d) bond holders
12) EPS is a _______ parameter for
assessing shareholders wealth.
a) traditional
b) morden
c) convertible
d)
residential
13) Financial leverage is _________.
a) EBIT/ EBT
b) EBT / EBIT
c) contribution / EBT
d) contribution / EBIT
14) _______ are the owner of the corporate
entity.
a) shareholders
b) debenture holders
c) bond holders
d) bord of directors
15) Permanent working capital is also known
as ______.
a) core working capital
b) net working capital
c) gross working capital
d) seasonal working capital
16) RBI has recommended _____ method to
finance working capital requirements.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
17) _______ is concerned with the
acquisition, financing, and management of assets with some overall goal in
mind.
a) financial management
b) profit maximization
c) agency theory
d) social responsibility
18) Shareholders wealth in a firm is
represented by ________ of firms common stock.
a) market price
b) ROI
c) yield price
d) cost price
19)
Municipal bonds are issued by ______.
a) government
b) shareholders
c) bord of directors
d) employees
20) If current assets is ₹ 20,000 and
current liabilities is ₹ 12,000 then MPBF as per method -1 is ₹ _______
a) 6000
b) 8000
c) 20000
d) 12000
21) The automatic source of short term fund
raising in the normal course of business is known as_____&
a) spontaneous
b) matches
c) conservation
d) aggressive
22) At break even point profit loss is
________.
a) more than loss
b) equal to zero
c) positive
d) nagative
23) __________ are the best quality
security.
a) government bonds
b) share
c) debenture
d) mutual fund
24) Working capital gap would be ₹ _____
when total current assets is ₹ 7,00,000 and total current liabilities is ₹
5,50,000 ( including ₹50,000 towards bank loan against Bill sent for
collection)
a) 2,00,000
b) 1,50,000
c) 7,00,000
d) 5,50,000
25) While calculating working capital,
stock of _____ are valued at total cost price.
a) finished goods
b) raw material
c) work in progress
d) store Leger
26) short term source is used to finance
_______ requirements.
a) fixed capital
b) working capital
c) investment
d) quick asset
27) The most crucial financial decisions of
the Organization are taken by ______.
a) lower level Management
b) middle level Management
c) higher level Management
d) superior
28) A firm financial plan that matches the
expected life of assets with the expected life of funds raised to finance that
assets is referred as ______.
a) spontaneous
b) matching
c) negative
d) seasonal
29) A firm when depends on more long term
fund for financing needs________.
a) aggressive
b) matching
c) current
d) conservative
30) Deferred income is a ________
liability.
a) current
b) fixed
c) working
d) net
31) working capital at cash cost is called
as _______.
a) cash working capital
b) core working capital
c) net working capital
d) gross working capital
32) Debenture is a _________ securities.
a) ownership
b) creditorship
c) government
d) society
33) _______ has to be financed from short
term source of funds.
a) working capital
b) debenture
c) preference shares
d) investment
34) If time taken to manufacture is less
than _________ working capital required.
a) less
b) more
c) negative
d) postive
35) Which of the following is a working
capital source of financing?
a) equity shares capital
b) preference share capital
c) term loan
d) loan against Bill sent for collection
36) Bonus shares are issued to _______ .
a) equity shareholders
b) preference shareholders
c) debenture holders
d) bond holders
37) ________ credit is a source of working
capital
a) trade
b) unique
c) cash
d) capital
38) Working capital that is _______ by the
item contain in the income statement.
a) refers
b) reflected
c) renew
d) influence
39) If current liabilities is ₹ 50,000 and
current assets is ₹ 2,50,000 the MPBF as per method- 2 is ₹ ________
a) 1,37,500
b) 50,000
c) 2,50,000
d) 2,00,000
40) Which of the following is a tax
deduction expenditure?
a) interest on debt
b) preference dividend
c) equity dividend
d) tax
41) The employment of an asset or source of
funds for which the firm has to pay a fixed rate of return is termed as
________.
a) leverage
b) risk
c) gearing
d) budget
42) Working capital source of finance is a
a) short term source
b) long term source
c) medium term source
d) one year
43) The basic objective of financial
management is
a) maximum of profit
b) profit planning of the Organization
c) maximization of shareholders wealth
d) ensuring financial discipline in the
Organization
44) One of the tools available to the
company to ensure maintenance of _______ cash balance is to prepare cash
budget.
a) optimum
b) level
c) Management
d) capitalism
45) The modern term EVM was called by
economist as ___________.
a) residual income
b) operating income
c) interest
d) dividend
46) Shareholders are interested in maximize
their ________.
a) wealth
b) objective
c) profit
d) gain
47) Dividend payout ratio is _______ .
a) DSP dividend by MPS
b) DSP dividend by EPS
c) DSP dividend by face value
d) ESP dividend by DPS
48) capitalisation is generally found to be
of _____ types.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
49) Process of carrying out the plan
skillfully is a _________ .
a) Management
b) skill
c) strategy
d) goal
50) The single most important ratio in case
of working capital management is:
a) current ratio
b) liquid ratio
c) stock working capital ratio
d) debt equity ratio
SUB : INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
|
1) E-banking
is also known as a)
conventional banking b)
ecommerce c)
mobile commerce d)
virtual banking |
|
2 ) ATM Stands for a)
automated teller machine b)
any time money c)
any teller machine d)
all time mobility
|
|
3 ) Disadvantage of Mobile
banking is a)
can be used any time b)
smishing c)
phishing d)
stealing of password |
|
4 ) Disadvantage of E
Banking is a)
quality service b)
discounts c)
high start up cost d)
any time cash facility |
|
5 ) Disadvantage of E
Banking is a)
quality service b)
discounts c)
security concerns d)
any time cash facility |
|
6 ) Disadvantage of E
Banking is a)
training and maintenance b)
discounts c)
quality service d)
any time cash facility |
|
7 ) Advantage of E banking
is a)
high start up cost b)
security issues c)
quality service d)
training and maintenance |
|
8 Advantage of E banking is a)
any time cash facility b)
security issues c)
high start up cost d)
training and maintenance |
|
9 ___________ constituted a Woking group on
Internet banking a)
IPC b)
RBI c)
Central Govt d)
IPS |
|
10
General purpose information like interest rates, branch location, bank
products and their features, loan and deposit calculations are provided in
the Banks website which is _______ system a)
Information only system b)
electronic information transfer system c)
fully electronic transactional system d)
ATM
|
|
11
This system allow, bi-directional capabilities. Transactions can be submitted
by the customer for online update. a)
Information only system b)
electronic information transfer system c)
fully electronic transactional system d)
ATM
|
|
12
The system provides customer- specific information in the form of account
balances, transaction details, and statement OF accounts
a)
Information only system b)
electronic information transfer system c)
fully electronic transactional system d)
ATM
|
|
13 M BANKING means a) meta
banking b) mobile
banking c) meet
banking d) money
banking |
|
14 EPS Stands for a) electrical
paying system b) electronic
payment system c) export
payment system d) extra
payment system
|
|
15 an ________ is a system
of financial exchange between buyers and sellers in the online environment
that is facilitated by a digital financial instrument . a) Mobile
communication b) Mobile
banking c) EPS d) ATM |
|
16 EVM CHIP is part of a) mobile
banking b) credit
card c) cheque
book d) ATM |
|
17 Hologram , expiration
date is part of a) mobile
banking b) debit
card c) cheque
book d) ATM |
|
18
A _________is a plastic card that provides an alternative payment method to
cash when making purchases. a)
Mobile banking b)
ATM c)
DEBIT CARD d)
EPS |
|
19 A debit card is also
known as a) credit
card b) chip
card c) issuer
card d) check
card |
|
20 EFT stands for a) electrical
fame transmit b) electronic
fund transfer c) electric
fishing transport d) electronic
fan transfer |
|
21 Inside a smart card is
usually an a) embedded
hard disk b) embedded
microprocessor c) embedded
camera d) users
name |
|
22
______can provide identification,
authentication, data storage and application processing. a)
smart card b)
mobile network c)
anti virus d)
ATM |
|
23 A closed wallet is one
where the flow of money is _______ a) Bidirectional b) one
directional c) closed d) open |
|
24
A ____wallet lets you take money out of it and put it back into your bank
account. a)
closed b)
semi closed c)
open d)
bitcoin
|
|
25 HTTP Stands for a) hyper
text transfer protocol b) hyper
trend transfer protocol c) hyper
trait transfer process d) hyper
text transfer program |
|
26 SMTP stands for a) simple
mean transfer program b) simple
mail transfer protocol c) same
mail transfer program d) simple
mail transfer program |
|
27 Bitcoin is also known as a) cut
currency b) crypto
counter c) crypto
currency d) cost
currency |
|
28
A ________is a server that is dedicated to linking websites and banks so that
online credit card transactions can be completed in real-time. a)
payment gateway b)
EFT c)
ATM d)
HTTP |
|
29 ECS Stands for a) electronic
cast service b) electronic
clearing service c) end
clear service d) electrical
clear software |
|
30 SDLC stands for a) system
development life cycle b) software
development life cycle c) soft
developing life cycle d) system
developing life cycle |
|
31 The first phase of SDLC
is a) system
analysis b) system
design c) system
planning d) testing
|
|
32 The last phase of SDLC IS
a) system
deployment and maintenance b) system
design c) system
planning d) testing |
|
33 ________ is the discipline of using
established principle , procedures and policies to manage a project from
conception through completion a) critical
path b) project
management c) sdlc d) chaining
|
|
34 RAD stands for a) rapid
apply development b) raid
apply development c) rapid
apply discussion d) rapid
application development |
|
35 JAD stands for a) joint
application development b) justice
application demand c) just
add demand d) joint
application demand |
|
36 The process of direction
and controlling a project form start to end is divided into ___ phases a) one b) two c) five d) six
|
|
37 Last phase of project
management is a) project
conception b) project
definition c) project
performance d) project
close |
|
38 PDC Stands for a) private
data center b) public
data center c) project
data center d) process
data center |
|
39 DNS stands for a) domain
naming security b) domain
name server c) data
name server d) data
naming security |
|
40 A ______- is a subject
oriented , integrated , time variant and non volatile collection of data a) data
warehouse b) data
mining c) DBMS d) data
store |
|
41 Disadvantage of data
warehouse is a) return
on investment is high b) increase
revenues c) timely
access to data d) extra
reporting |
|
42 Disadvantage of data
warehouse is a) return
on investment is high b) raising
ownership c) increase
revenues d) timely
access to data
|
|
43 Advantage of data
warehouse is a) raising
ownership b) extra
reporting c) data
flexibility d) return
of investment is high |
|
44 Advantage of data
warehouse is a) raising
ownership b) increase
revenues c) extra
reporting d) data
flexibility |
|
45 Virtual warehouse , data
mart are models of a) enterprise
warehouse b) data
warehouse c) data
mining d) DBMS |
|
46 ___________ manager is
responsible for directing the queries to the suitable tables a) data
warehouse b) query
manager c) data
mart d) data
mining |
|
47 KDD stands for a) knowledge
discovery in databases b) knowledge
delete database c) know
data database d) knowledge
database Datawarehouse |
|
48 The first stage in data
mining is a) exploration b) model
building c) dependent d) validation |
|
49 The last stage in data
mining is a) exploration b) model
building c) dependent d) validation |
|
50 Automated predictions of
trends and behaviours is scope of ___ a) data
ware house b) data
mart c) data
mining d) artificial
intelligence |
CLASS:
S.Y.B.B.I
SUB : Corporate &
security law
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. The
Company Act 1956 as amended by the
a. English
companies Act 1948
b. Indian
partnership Act 1932
c. Societies
Registration Act 1860
d.
The
Companies Act 2013
2. A
Company is a
a. A
human being
b.
An
artificial person created by law
c. A
natural individual
d. None
of the above
3. The
people who undertakes the process of formation of a company are
a.
Promoters
b. Directors
c. Registrar
of Companies
d. Secretary
4. In a
public company, the minimum number of members are
a. Five
or more
b. Three
or more
c.
Seven
or more
d. Less
than 10
5. Who
prepares the final plan of a company?
a. Registrar
b. Director
c.
Promoter
d. Joint
Secretary
6. A
company shall be formed for
a. Un-lawful
purpose
b. Social
welfare
c.
Lawful
purpose
d. Without
any purpose
7. Promoters
are the ones who come up with the idea of
a. Starting
club house
b. Starting
school
c. Starting
restaurant
d.
Starting
business
8. On
behalf of the proposed company, the promoters may enter into preliminary
contract with
a. Fourth
party
b. Secretary
of company
c.
Third
party
d. None
of them
9. The
person to be appointed as the director must have a
a. PAN
b. TAN
c. CIN
d.
DIN
10. A
document that invites the public to buy the shares of a company is
a. Memorandum
of Association
b.
Prospectus
c. Article
of Association
d. Certificate
of Incorporation
11. In
case of Solomon v/s Solomon and Co. Ltd. (1897 A.C. 22), the principle applied
first time was
a. Limited
Liability
b. May
Sue or be Sued
c. Transfer
of ownership
d.
Separate
Legal entity or separate legal existence
12. Separate
legal entity and perpetual succession are the
a. Disadvantages
of a company
b. Classification
of a company
c.
Features/Characteristics
of a company
d. Advantages
of a company
13. The
corporate veil is lifted by the court when
a. Court
considers a company as a separate legal entity
b.
Court
ignores the separate entity of a company
c. Without
any reason
d. Any
reason which court finds better
14. A
company being a corporate body, it can be
a.
Can
Sue and can be sued
b. Cannot
sue and cannot be sued
c. Is
above suit
d. No
right to sue
15. Shares
in public company are
a.
Easily
transferable
b. Non
transferable
c. Difficult
to transfer
d. Consent
to transfer is needed
16. A
company
a. May
die
b.
Has a
fixed life
c. Never
dies
d. Does
not have life
17. A
company owns the capital and shares of it’s
a.
Own
b. Members
c. Directors
d. Accountants
of the company
18. Property
of a company is owned by
a. Directors
b. Secretary
of a company
c. Other
company
d.
By
company itself
19. Company
has a perpetual existence
a. False
b.
True
c. Wrong
concept
d. Partly
true and partly false
20. Registration
of a company under Companies Act 2013 is
a. Not
obligatory
b.
Compulsory
c. As per
wish of directors
d. Any
other reason
21. Which
document should be annexed to the notice of the statutory meeting
a.
Statutory
report
b. Proxy
form
c. Explanatory
statement
d. No
document
22. A
companies’ nationality is decided by it’s
a. Share
holders
b.
Registration
office
c. Location
of body where accounts are kept
d. Address
of directors
23. The
liability of members of company is limited by guarantee of
a. Unpaid
value of shares
b.
Guarantee
amount
c. Unlimited
liability
d. Limited
liability
24. A Pvt.
Limited company can commence business at
a. Any
time
b.
After
obtaining certificate of incorporation (C.O.I.)
c. After
obtaining certificate of Commence Business (C.O.C.B.)
d. After
obtaining DIN
25. Memorandum
of Association does not include
a. Subscription
clause
b. Capital
clause
c. Liability
clause
d.
Assets
Clause
26. A
Special resolution is passed by
a. Simple
majority
b. 2/3rd
majority
c.
3/4th
majority
d. 3/5th
majority
27. A
memorandum is a document under sec 399 of the companies act 2013 as
a. Private
b. Secret
c.
Public
d. Open
to All
28. According
to which section of Companies Act 2013, requirements for memorandum of
association are provided?
a.
Section
4
b. Section
5
c. Section 6
d. Section
7
29. A
Company where a single individual holds all the shares of the company is called
as
a. Dormant
Company
b. Government
Company
c. Foreign
Company
d.
One
Person Company
30. A
company not having any limit on the liability of its members is called
a. Foreign
company
b. Limited
company
c.
Unlimited
company
d. Producer
company
31. Small
companies paid-up scheme does not exceed
a. 20
Lakh rupees
b.
50
Lakh rupees
c. More
than 2 Crore rupees
d. 5 Lakh
rupees
32. A
company that is incorporated out of India but has a place of business in India
is called
a. Can’t
exist
b. Dormant
company
c.
Foreign
company
d. Public
company
33. The
clause in memorandum of association which speaks about capital is
a. The
object clause
b. The
liability clause
c. The
address clause
d.
The
capital Clause
34. The
document which describes and regulates the relationship between a company and
outsiders is
a. Article
of Association
b. Prospectus
c.
Memorandum
of Association
D. Any other document
35. Which
is the second clause of the memorandum of association
a. Then
object clause
b. The
name clause
c. Address
clause
d. The
capital clause
36. Memorandum
of association in case of public company,it has to signed by
a. Five
subscriber
b. Two
subscriber
c. Seven
subscriber
d. Three subscriber
37. Companies
those form on minimum number of promoters
a. Small
company
b. Foreign
company
c. Public,private,one
person company
d. No
such companies
38. Company
not for profit work for what cause
a. General
causes
b. Financial
causes
c. Unlawful
cause
d. Social/
welfare cause
39. The
company that have to follow SEBI’S guidelines is which company
a. Foreign
company
b. Governmental
company
c. Associate
company
d. Listed
company
40. Who
has to obtain digital signature certificate from certified authority
a. Secretary
of company
b. Advocate
of company
c. Account
of company
d. Promoters
and proposed first directors of company
41. What
dose RUN stands for
a. Permanent
account number
b. Director
identification number
c. Reserve
unique name
d. Memorandum
of association
42. Article
of association is called as
a. First
most important documents
b. Second
most important document
c. Not
important document
d. Not
legal document
43. Articles
of association its helps in
a. External
management of company
b. Internal
management of company
c. Not related
with any management
d. Partly
external and partly internal
44. Doctrine
of indoor management protect the interest of
a. Insiders
b. Outsiders
c. Special
party
d. Secretary
45. Provisions
for conversions of shares into stocks and vice versa are included in the document
name ?
a. Prospectus
of company
b. Memorandum
of company
c. No
such document exist
d. Article
of association
46. The
term ultra vires means
a. Beyond
the contract
b. Beyond
the limitations
c. Power
of memorandum
d. Beyond
the association
47. Which
section defines prospectus under company act 2013
a. Section
2(56)
b. Section
2(70)
c. Section
2(69)
d. Section
2(1)
48. Which
companies are exempted to add limited Ltd or Pvt Ltd at the end of their names
a. Private
b. Government
c. Dormant
d. Association
not for profit
49. A
person can be called as a member when the name is entered in
a. Register
of charges
b. List
of members
c. Register
of members
d. Register
of certified authority
50. Central
government permission is needed to conversion of ?
a. Private
to public
b. Public
to private
c. No
such permission is needed
d. Dormant
company to small company
CLASS:
S.Y.BBI -VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : FOUNDATION COURSE
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. ________ equity refers to the need for a
just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations, and fair and
impartial treatment of future generations.
a. INTRA-GENERATIONAL() b.
ECO-GENERATIONAL()
c.INTERGENERATIONAL() d.
GENERATIONAL()
2. It
is ________ that a person filing a case under PIL should have a direct interest
in public interest litigation.
a. NECESSARY() b. NOT NECESSARY() c. iMPORTANT() d. VITAL()
3. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is
preplaced by Consumer Protection Act, ________
a. 2019 () b. 2014() c. 2020 () d.
2015()
4. Under Consumer Protection
Act 2019, the State Commission deals with consumer complaints, where the value
of goods/services and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________
crore.
a. 20() b. 30() c.
10() d. 15()
5. The Consumer Protection Act
2019 came into force with effect from ________
a. 20th JULY 2019()
b. 21st AUGUST 2019() c. 20th JULY 2020() d. 1sr APRIL 2020()
4. The Consumer Protection Act
2019, the District Forum deals with consumer complaints, where the value of
goods/services and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________
crore.
a. 1() b. 5() c. 10() d. 20()
5. Under the ‘Rights to
________’, a consumer has the right to be protected against certain goods which
are dangerous to human life.
a. SAFETY() b. BE HEARD() c. CHOOSE() d. BE INFORMED()
6. Under the ‘Rights to
________’, a consumer has the right to register complaints and grievances
relating to products which he/she uses.
a. CHOOSE() b. BE INFORMED() c. SAFETY() d. BE HEARD()
7. The Consumer Protection
Act, the National Commission at the national level deals with complaints of
amount that exceeds INR ___________ crore.
a. 20() b. 10() c. 15() d. 25()
8. The Essential Services
Maintenances Act ensures the delivery of certain services, which if ________
would affect the normal life of the people.
a. PROVIDED() b. GUARDED() c. DELIVERED() d. OBSTRUCTED()
9.PIL means, litigation filed
in a ________ for the protection of public interest that generally affects a
group of persons or society at large.
a. STATE LITIGATION
DEPARTMENT() b. CENTRAL GOVERNMENT
DEPARTMENT()
c. COURT OF LAW() d.
STATE SECRETARIATE()
10. The Right to Information
Act, 2005 came into force with effects from _________ 2005.
a. 26th AUGUST() b. 2nd OCTOBER() c. 20th JULY() d. 15th
JUNE()
11. The main objective of PIL
is to protect __________
a. PUBLIC INFORMATION() b.
GOVERNMENT INTEREST()
c. PRIVATE INTEREST() d.
PUBLIC INTEREST()
12. The concept of Citizens’
Charter was first introduced and implemented in the ________ in 1991.
a. UNITED STATES OF AMERICA() b
INDIA()
c. UNITED KINGDOM() d.
PORTUGAL()
13. _________ is the first state in India to introduce the Right to
Public Services Act in 2010.
a. UTTAR PRADESH() b. MADHYA PRADESH() c. MAHARASHTRA() d.
GOA()
14. ____________ is the
facility set up by the central government organisations to provide information
to citizens about their programmes/ schemes, rules and procedures, etc.
a. INFORMATION CENTRE() b.
INFORMATION AND FACILITATION COUNTER ()
c. INFORMATION WEBSITE() d. PROGRAMMES INFORMATION()
15. The Indian Contract Act
was passed in the year ____________
a. 1872 () b. 1990 () c. 1986 () d.
2020()
16. In India, Citizens’
Charter was implanted in the year ___________
a. 2000 () b.
2005 () c. 1999 () d. 1997()
17. The Right to Information
Act was first introduced in __________ state.
a. GUJARAT() b. TAMIL NADU () c.
GOA() d. RAJASTHAN()
18. PIL refers to ___________
a. PUBLIC INTEREST
LITIGATION() b.
PUBLIC INFORMATION LITIGATION()
c. POLICE INFORMATION
LITIGATION() d.
PRIVATE INFORMATION LITIGATION()
19. In India, the Citizens’
Charter was first introduced in the _________ sector.
a. EDUCATION() b. AIRLINES() c. BANKING() d. INSURANCE()
20. The Department of
Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) as set up by Government of
India as a ________ agency relating to Citizens’ Charters.
a. IMPLEMENTING() b. PROVIDING() c. COORDINATING() d. SERVING()
21. A citizens’ charter is a
document setting out the rights of _________ which guarantees the right to
redress on occasions where public services failed to meet certain standards.
a. CITIZENS() b. SENIOR CITIZENS() c. MALES() d.
FEMALES()
22. Under the ‘Right to
_______’, a consumer has the right to buy the products of his/her choice.
a. BE INFORMED() b. CHOOSE() c. BE HEARD() d. SAFETY()
23. The term ‘ecology’ was
termed by German biologist ________
a. ERNST HACKLE() b. ANGELA MERKEL() c. ERNEST BORGES() d. BORIS
MERKEL()
24. The Universal Declaration
of Human Rights was first adopted in_________. Well before environmental
concerns were raised.
a. 1978() b. 1968 () c.
1958() d.
1948()
25. The ________ states
“whoever is responsible for the damage to the environment should bear the costs
associated with it.”
a. PPP() b. SDG() c.
MDG() d. ECD()
26. _________ describes
movements and philosophies that link feminism with ecology
a. FEMINISM() b. FEM-PHILOSOPHY() c. ECOFEMINISM() d. MOVEMENT PHILOSOPHY()
27. ___________ ecology is the
study of the relationships between political, economic and social factors with
environmental issues and changes.
a. ENVIRONMENTAL() b. SOCIAL() c. ECONOMIC() d.
POLITICAL()
28. The concept of ‘Extended
Producer Responsibility was first described by _________.’
a. THOMAS EDISON() b. ERNST HAVCKLE() c. THOMAS LINDQUIST() d.
STAN ROWE()
29. __________ coined the term
‘Deep Ecology’.
a. PAUL TAYLOR () b.
ARNE NAESS() c. STAN ROWE() d.
JOHN PASSMORE()
30. Population ecology studies
the dynamics of population of a ____________ species.
a. SINGLE() b. HUMAN() c. SEVERAL() d.
ANIMAL()
31. ________ equity refers to
the need for a just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations,
and fair and impartial treatment of future generations.
a. INTRA-GENERATIONAL() b. ECO-GENERATIONAL()
c. INTERGENERATIONAL() d. GENERATIONAL()
32. _________ Principle is
referred to the responsibility of polluter to bear costs associated with the
damage to the environment.
a. POLLUTER COSTS() b.
POLLUTER BANS()
c. POLLUTER GAINS() d.
POLLUTER PAYS()
33. _________ focuses on the biotic community as
a whole and strives to maintain ecosystem compositions and ecological
processes.
a. ECOCENTRISM() b.
ANTHROPOCENTRISM()
c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOFEMINISM()
34. ________ ecology studies
the flows of energy and matter through the biotic and abiotic components of the
ecosystems.
a. SYSTEMS() b. POLITICAL() c. ECOSYSTEM() d.
LANDSCAPE()
35. __________ seeks to shift
the responsibility of costs dealing with waste from government to the
manufacturers producing it.
a. POLLUTER PAYS PRINCIPLE() b. EXTENDED PRODUCER
RESPONSIBILITY()
c. SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
PRINCIPLE() d. WASTE
MANAGEMENT RESPONSIBILITY()
36. ________ argues that the
natural world is a subtle balance of complex inter-relationships in which the
existence of organisms is dependent on the existence of others within
ecosystem.
a. DEEP ECOLOGY() b. ECOFEMINISM() c. ECOCENTRISM() d.
BIOCENTRISM()
37. Community ecology focuses
on the interactions between species with an _________ community.
a. SOCIAL() b.
ECOLOGICAL() c. ECONOMIC() d. ENVIRONMENTAL()
38. __________ refers to
comprehensive science of the relationship of the organism with the environment.
a. BOTANY() b.
ECOLOGY()
c. ENVIRONMENTAL
RELATIONSHIPS() d. ORGANIC
SCIENCE()
39. ___________ equity is
concerned with equity between people of the same generation.
a. INTRAGENERATIONAL() b. GENERATIONAL()
c. INTERGENERATIONAL() d. ECO-GENERATIONAL()
40. The sustainable
development goals are for the period from 2015 to _________.
a. 2020() b. 2030() c.
2025() d.
2050()
41. __________ is a nature
centered approach.
a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()
c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOCENTRISM()
42. ____________ refers to
avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an
ecological balance.
a. MORALITY() b. SUSTAINABILITY() c. ECOLOGY() d. ECO-DEPLETION()
43. __________ grant morals standing
to all living beings.
a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()
c. BIOCENTRISM() d.
ECOCENTRISM()
44. The sustainable
development goals were developed to replace the __________ goals.
a. ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT() b. SUSTAINABILITY()
c. MILLENNIUM DEVELOPMENT () d.
SOCIO-ECONOMIC()
45. WWF stands for World
Wildlife _________.
a. FINANCE() b. FUND() c.
FORMS() d.
NATURE()
46. __________ ecology
examines processes and relationship across multiple ecosystems or very large
geographic areas.
a. GEOGRAPHIC () b.
EVOLUTIONARY() c. LANDSCAPE() d. POPULATION()
47. ___________ refers to
avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an
ecological balance.
a. MORALITY() b. SUSTAINABILITY() c.
ECOLOGY() d. ECO-DEPLETION()
48. The __________ declaration
on environment and development was approved by the United Nations in 1992.
a. KYOTO() b. LONDON() c. DELHI() d.
RIO()
49.____________ is a life
centered approach views animals as important living beings.
a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()
c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOCENTRISM()
50. The ___________ is a
strategy to cope with possible risks where scientific understanding is yet
incomplete, such as the risk of nanotechnology, genetically modified organisms
and systematic insecticides.
a. POLLUTER PAYS PRINCIPLE() b. PRECAUTIONARY
PRINCIPLE()
c. EXTENDED PRODUCER
RESPONSIBILITY() d. SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT PRINCIPLE()
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