SYBCOM - SEM IV - MCQ
MCQ – Multiple
Choice Questions
SAMPLE MCQ
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI
SYLLABUS
Will be helpful to
regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online
examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V
class of students.
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ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD
CLASS:
S.Y. B.Com -IV SEM REGULAR
SUB: Business Law
MCQ
1.
_____ or more persons are required to form a
public company.
a.
Eight
b.
Two
c.
Five
d.
Seven
2.
__________________ means a company which has
only one person as a member.
a. Private
company
b. Public company
c. One Person company
d.
Foreign Company
3.
The name of every LLP shall end with the words
“_______________”.
a.
Private Limited
b.
Limited
c.
Pvt Ltd Company
d. Limited Liability Partnership
4.
The maximum number of partners in a firm
carrying on banking business cannot exceed ____.
a. 10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
30
5.
Member in relation to a company means:
__________.
a.
Insolvency of member
b.
Sale of shares of member
c.
Death of member
d. The subscriber to the memorandum
6.
Every limited liability partnership shall have
at least ____ partners.
a.
Three
b.
Five
c. Two
d.
Seven
7.
A consumer is a person who __________________.
a. Buys goods for consideration
b.
Buys goods for resale
c.
Gets goods free of cost
d.
Robs the goods
8.
The place of National Commission shall be in
_________.
a.
Mumbai
b.
Palghar
c.
Kolkata
d. Delhi
9.
There are ____ clauses in the Memorandum of
Association.
a.
5
b.
7
c.
6
d.
8
10.
The trade mark should be capable of
____________.
a. Distinguishing the goods or services of one
person from those of others.
b.
Causing confusion
c.
Prohibited under the Emblems and Names
(Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950
d.
Deceiving the public
11.
The position of a minor in partnership is dealt
with in the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 in _________.
a.
Section 25
b.
Section 29
c.
Section 2
d. Section 30
12.
The ________ of a company shall contain the
regulation for management of the company.
a.
Articles
b.
Memorandum
c.
Prospectus
d.
Offer
13.
The registration of a trade mark is valid for a
period of ____ years and further renewable.
a. 10
b.
20
c.
60
d.
50
14.
What is the meaning of ultra- vires?
a.
Power of the company
b.
Unlimited liability
c.
Limited liability
d.
Beyond the
power
15.
New partner can be admitted in the firm
_____________.
a.
Without the consent of existing partners
b.
With the consent of single partner
c.
With the
consent of existing partners
d.
With the consent of senior partner
16.
_____________ is a legal person which is
capable of perpetual succession and common seal.
a. Company
b.
Voluntary Association
c.
Firm
d.
Partnership
17.
Passing off is based on the violation of
_________ right.
a.
Statutory
b.
Common
c. Common law
d.
Partners’
18.
Every LLP has to have at least ________
designated partners.
a.
Three
b.
Two
c.
Four
d.
five
19.
________ clause defines the business activity
of the company.
a.
Object
b.
Liability
c.
Registered office
d.
Capital
20.
Limited Liability Partnership Act came into
force in the year _______.
a.
2001
b.
2008
c.
2009
d.
2004
21.
President of the National Commission is a
person who is or has been _____________.
a.
District Judge
b. Judge of Supreme Court
c.
Judge of the High Court
d.
Tribunal Judge
22.
The registers required to be kept and maintained
by a Company shall be kept at the __________ of the company.
a.
Branch
b.
House of the member
c. Registered Office
d.
Garden
23.
________ of a Joint Hindu Family firm is
responsible for the acts of the firm.
a.
Karta
b.
Partner
c.
Shareholder
d.
Director
24.
Any document containing offer of shares or
debentures for sale shall be deemed to be a ___________.
a.
Articles
b.
Memorandum
c. Prospectus
d.
Leaflet
25.
The last word “Limited” means in case of XYZ
Limited, the company is a ____________.
a.
Private Limited company
b.
OPC
c. Public Limited company
d.
LLP
SUB : Foundation Course -VI
MCQ
1.
The consumer protection act(CPA), 1986 is
preplaced by consumer protection Act, ……..
a.2019 b. 2014
c. 2020 d. 2015
2. the consumer
protection act , 2019 come into force with effect from ………..
a.20th July
2019 b.21st august 2019 c. 20th July 2020 d. 1st April 2020
3. Under the ‘Right to
………. , a consumer as the right to be
protected against certain goods which are dangerous to human life.
a. safety b. Be Heard
c. Choose D. be Informed
4. under Right to
…………., a consumer has the right to known basic information about product.
a. safety b. Be
heard c. choose d. be Informed
5.under
the “right to …………. , a consumer has the
right to buy the product of his/her choice.
a. be
informed b be choose c.be heard
d. Safety
6. Under Right to be ……
… a consumer has the right to registered complaints and grievance relating to
product which he/ she uses.
a. choose b.be informed
c. safety d.be heard
7. under the CPA, 2019
the district forum deals with consumer complaints , where the value of Goods/
services and compensation , If any , Claimed does not exceed INR…. Crore.
a.1 b.5
c.10 d 15
8. Under CPA, 2019 the
state commission deals with consumer complaints , where the value of goods and
services and compensation , if Any , Claimed does not exceed INR… ……….Crore.
a.20 b. 30 c.10 d .15
9.Under CPA, The
National Commission at the National Level Deals with complaints of amount that
exceed INR……………… crore.
a. 20 b.10 c15
d. 25
10. The Indian Contract
Act passed in the Years …………
a.1872 b. 1990
c. 1986 d.2020
11. The Right To
Information act, 2005 Come into force with Effect from…………, 2005
a. 26th
August b. 2nd October c. 20th
July D. 15th June.
12. The Right To
Information act was first introduced in ………….. state.
a. Gujarat b. Tamilnadu c. Goa d. Rajasthan
13.the concept of
Citizen Charter was first introduced and
Implemented in…………… in 1991.
a. USA b. INDIA
c.UK d Portugal
14. A ‘Citizen charter
is a document setting out the rights of ……….which guarantees the right to be
redress on occasions where Public services failed to meet certain Standard.
a. citizen b. senior citizen c. males
d. females
15. In India’s,
Citizens charter was implanted in the year ………….
a.2000 b. 2005 c. 1999 d. 1997
16. in India’s the
citizens charter was first introduced in the ……………. Sector.
a. education b. Airline
c. banking d. Insurance
17. …………… is the first
state in India to introduced the Right to Public services Act in 2010.
A. Uttar Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh c. Maharashtra d.
Goa
18.
the …………….. guarantees time bound delivery of Public services.
a. right
to Public services b. citizens
charter c. right to information d. Guarantee of
public services
19. the essential services maintenance act ensures the delivery of
certain services, which
If ……………… would affect the normal life of the people.
a.
Provided
b. guarded c. delivered d. obstructed
20. in Maharashtra , the
guarantee of Public Services act, was passed in The Year……………
a. 2015 b.2017 c.2010
d. 2020
21. ……………… is a facility set up by central government organisation to
provide
Information to citizen about their programmes rules and procedures, etc.
a.
Information centre b. information and facilitation counter
c. information
Website d. Programmes information
22.
The Department of Administrative reforms and public grievance as set up by
Government of India as a……………..agency relating to citizens charters
a.
Implementing b. providing c. coordinating d. serving
23. PIL refers to ………..
a.
Public interest litigation b. public information Litigation c. Police Information Litigation
d.
Private Information Legislation
24.
The main Objective of PIL is to protect……….
a.
public information b. government
interest
c.
private interest d. Public
interest
25.
it is ……………….. that a person filing a case under PIL should have a direct
interest in public interest litigation.
a.
necessary b. not necessary c.
important d. vital
a. reasonable b. reasoning c. reassuring d. realistic
CLASS:
S.Y.BCOM - SEM 2 REGULAR
SUB: ADVERTISING
MCQ
1)
advertising
has a longer life.
a)
Magazines b) TV
c) Radio
d) Film
2)
media can provide media support with current event.
a) Magazines b) Trade Journals c) Newspapers d) website
3)
provides
interactive facility.
a)
Newspapers b) Internet
c) TV d) radio
4)
Medium combines
the effects of video and audio.
a) Radio b) Newspapers
c) TV d)
magazines
5)
is the
fastest growing medium in advertising.
a)
Internet b) Television
c) Radio) d) magazines
6)
medium has
the higher share of advertising revenue in India.
a)
Magazines b) Newspapers c) internet d) radio
7)
publication has the'highest average issue
readership in India.
a)
Dainik Bhaskar,
b) Hindustan c) Dainik Jagran d) Mumbai mirror
8)
is a form of out-of-home media.
a)
TV b) Transit c)
Magazines d) radio
9)
Last minute changes are possible in the case of
medium
a)
TV b) Outdoor c)
Magazines d) radio
10)
form of
outdoor advertising induces action at the stores.
a)
Point of
Purchase
b) Transit c)
Sandwichman d) radio
11)
In
India, Television was launched in the year
a)
1949 b)
1959 c) 1969 d) 1921
12)
In
India, the first radio programme was aired in the year _____.
a)
1923 b)
1933 c) 1943
d) 1959
13)
Transit advertising is a form of
a)
Indoor b)
outdoor c) internet
d) television
14)
is an
interactive medium.
a)
Internet b)
Newspapers c) Magazines d) radio
15) objectives
are qualitative in nature.
a) Sales b) Communication c)
Company d) finance
16) Availability
of
influences the amount of ad budget.
a) Products
b) Funds c) Media d) market
17)
Method of advertising budget Considers the objectives for allocating funds.
a) Task method b) fixed guideline
method c) arbitrary method d) plan method
18)
Is a media objective
a) Awareness b)
Brand Image c) Reach d) loyalty
19) Are calculated by multiplying
frequency by reach.
a) TRPs b)
GRPs c) scoring points d) loyalty
20) is
an element of media-mix
a) Methodology b)
Target Customers c) Advertiser
d) producer
21) Under
media scheduling strategy, there is
heavy advertising followed by hiatus and again heavy advertising.
a) Bursting b)
Pulsing c) Flighting d) peak
22) Under
media scheduling strategy, advertiser starts
on a lower scale and gradually increases as the season peaks.
a) Teaser
Step-up b) Teaser Step down c) Steady
d) peak
23)
is an outline that provides instructions for the work to be done by agency’s
creative-team.
a) Creative brief b)
Creative Art Work c) Creative Copy
d) creative point
24) is a single minded proposition.
a) USP b)
GSP c) MSP d)
MPS
25) is the central idea of an ad campaign.
a) Message
theme b) Creative Brief c)
Creative Pitch d) creative copy
CLASS: S.Y.Bcom SEM 4
SUB : AUDITING
MCQ
- Checking the amount in words during
vouching of cash transactions helps the auditor to
a) Detect error
of principle b) Detect error of
commission c) Detect error of misappropriation
d) Detect error of compensation
- The Auditor needs to check that no item is
omitted in machinery account. For this he should examine
a) Depreciation
expense b) Repairs and maintenance expenses
c) Profit and loss on sales
d) Cash
- Checking serial number of voucher during
vouching helps the auditor to
a) Detect error
of principle b) Detect error of omission c) Detect error of duplication d) Detect compensating error
- The Auditor is performing substantive test
of balance for creditors. What documentation would provide the best
evidence for closing balance
a) Supplier
invoice b) Supplier Statement c)
Goods received notes d) Purchase order
5. If the sticks are undervalued the profit and
assets will be
a) Nil b) More in the accounts c) overstated d)
Understated
6. New bank loans will be taken under
the authority of
a) board of directors b) Purchasing department c) Accounting department d) Account payable department
7. What involves depending the title
deeds of the property with lender as security
a) equitable mortgage b) Legal mortgage c) Hypothecation d) Pledge
8. The credit balance of debtor account
is show on which side
a) assets b) income
c) Liability d) expense
9. Closing stock with consignee is to
be shown as the asset of
a) Consignor
b) Consignee c) Owner
d) Customer
10. Goods received notes support entry
in
a) Sales book and
sales return book b) Purchase book and sales return book
c) Cash book and purchase book
d) Sales book and purchase return book
11. The process to verify balance at end
of year
a)Vouching
b)Auditing c) planning d)
verification
12. Current file and permanent file are
together known as
a) plan b) Audit programme c)Audit procedure d) Audit working papers
13. Repair to Machinery had been charged
to Machinery A/C this is
a) of omissions b)
error of principle c)Clerical
Error d). Error of commision
14. An example of external document is
a) Employee time report b)
bank statements c) purchase order
for company purchase d) carbon copies
of cheques
15. Working papers are the property of
the
- Client b) Client and Auditor c)
Auditor d) government
16. Systematic examination of books and
records of a business is known as
a. Auditing b) Vouching c) Verification d)
Checking
17. Which of the following is the least
likely to uncover fraud.
a)Internal
Auditors b) Management
c) Internal Controls d)
External Auditors
18. Current Audit file relating to audit
of partnership firm will not contain
a)
Audit plan b) Audit
Programme c)Letters of
confirmation d) Partnership deed
19. If several employees collude to
falsify documents the chance a normal audit would uncover such acts
b) Very Low b) very high c)zero d) fifty fifty
20. Trial balance for year under Audit will be
filled in
c) Permanent b)
Current c) Balance Sheet d) Intermittent
21. Audit technique of seeking
information from others is
Confirmation
b) Inquiry c) Discover d) Documenting
22. Calculating the gross profit as a
percentage of sales and comparing it with previous periods is what type of
audit method
Inspection b) Observation c)
Analytical Procedures d) Inquiry
23. Which of the following is
responsible for establishing a private company internal control
a. Internal Auditor b) ICAI
c) Senior Management d) Audit Committee
24. Obtain an understanding of internal
controls
a.
Auditor is responsible b) Management is responsible c) Shareholders are responsible d) Board of Directors are responsible
25. The method of sample selection which
involves selecting items using a constant interval between selection the first
interval having a random start
a. Random Selection b)
Systematic Selection c) Haphazard
selection d) Sampling
CLASS: S.Y. BCOM IV SEM REGULAR
SUB : COMMERCE
1.___________ is the gap between order receiving and delivery
of product.
(Lead Time, Production Time, Delivery
Schedule, Final Time)
2. In process production
___________product
type is produced.
(Multiple,
Single, Few, Many)
3. In ___________ production system, goods are produced on a
large scale and stocked till they are demanded in the market.
(job,
project, mass, activity)
4.
In ___________ production system, items are strictly produced as per customer
specifications.
(mass,
batch, Job, project)
5.
Mass production is an example of___________ production system.
(general,
continuous, intermittent, mass)
6.
___________refers to monitoring of actual production.
(Scheduling,
follow down, Routing, Follow-up)
7.
Routing ___________ scheduling in production planning.
(follows,
simultaneous with, follow-ups, precedes)
8.___________ is
the ratio of output to input.
(quality,
productivity, efficiency, product)
9.
___________ is an element of production planning.
(dispatching,
precedes, follow-up, routing)
10.
Under___________ production,
a single order is executed.
(Project, Batch, Process, mass)
11.
___________is a process of maintaining and monitoring the
size of inventory
at
appropriate level.
(Quality
Control, Inventory Control,
Production Control, Investment control)
12.___________ is
concerned with giving orders and instructions to factor workers.
(dispatching, scheduling, routing,
controlling)
13. __________ is the father of TOM.
(W.E. Deming, Ishikawa Kaoru, Anthony
Francis, Joseph Juran)
14. __________ is the father of quality circles.
(W.E.
Deming, Ishikawa Kaoru, Joseph Juran,
Anthony Francis)
15.__________ popularized
the concept of Kaizen.
(Joseph
Juran, Masaaki Imai, Peter Drucker, Anthony
Francis)
16. __________ control is concerned with end result of
quality.
(Inventory,
material, Quality, planning)
17.__________ represents a customer oriented, quality focused
management philosophy.
(TQM, Quality Assurance, SQC, FOC)
18.
TQM places
emphasis on __________ approach.
(Defective,
Defect-free, Corrective, simple)
19.
Quality circle is a __________ group of workers.
(formal,
voluntary, selective, informal)
20.
The International Organisation for Standardization is located in __________
(Switzerland, Scotland, England, America)
21.
__________ technique enables the workers to check the
quality of items before they are passed on to the next operation.
(Quality
Assurance, SQC, FOC, Quality at Source)
21.
__________ is a set of strategies, techniques and tools
for process improvement.
(Quality
Circles, Six Sigma, Quality Control,
seven sigma)
22.
ISO 9000 was first published in the year__________.
(1987, 1990, 2000, 1988)
23.
SIPOC stands for suppliers, input, process, output,__________
(creditors,
customers, consultants, coordinate)
24.
Under six sigma, the black belt team member is the one that has
achieved
the __________ skill level.
(lowest,
medium, moderate, highest)
25.
The current series of ISO 9000 is________.
(9001: 2008, 9001: 2005, 9001:2000,
9001:2002)
26.
The concept of quality circle was first popularized by__________
(W.E.
Deming, Ishikawa Kaoru, Masaaki Imai,
Anthony Francis)
CLASS:
SYBcom – IV SEM REGULAR
SUB: BUSINESS ECONOMICS – IV
MCQ
1. Which
of the following is not within the scope of public finance?
A)
Public revenue b)
monetary management c) public expenditured) financial administration
2. A
budget should be followed during depression
a) Deficit b) surplus c) balanced d) neutral
3. The
term functional finance was introduced by…………….
a) J.M.
Keynes b) Ricard
Musgrave c) Hugh Dalton d) A.P. Lerner
4. It
difficult to assess the outcome of financial activities of the government
because
a) Social
benefits & cost are subjective in nature
b) The
budgetary activities are not open to scrutiny
c) Budget
may be surplus or deficit
d) Social
benefits & cost are quantitative in nature
5. Classical
economist advocated the government to involve in ………..
a) All
the activity of the economy
b) Only
in most essential activities
c) Selective
economics and political activities
d) Some
specific activity of the economy
6. The
economist associated with the principle of Maximum Social Advantages is
a) Seligman b) samuelson c) Dalton d) sweezy
7. Which
of the following is not an assumption of the principle of MSA?
a) All
taxes results in sacrifice
b) All
public expenditure consists only of taxes
c) Public
revenue consist only of taxes
d) The
budget may be surplus or deficit
8. MSB
declines with every additional unit of money spent by the government due to
………..
a) Diminishing
marginal return
b) Diminishing
marginal utility
c) Diminishing
marginal productivity
d) Diminishing
total return
9. The
maximum welfare principle of budget determination is associated with
a) Hugh
Dalton b) paul samuelson c) Edwin Seligman d) Richard Musgrave
10. The
term market failure refers to ……………..
a) a
market that fails to allocate resources efficiently
b) an
unsuccessful product
c) cut
throat competition firms
d) a firm
that is forced out of business because of losses.
11. An
example of an externality is the impact of ………
a) Bad
crops on the income of farmers
b) A tax
rate hike on a person’s ability to purchase goods and services
c) Pollution
from a factory on the health of people in the area
d) Increase
in the number of health care centres.
12. Which
of following is not a feature of public goods?
a) Non –
rival in consumption
b) Non-excludability
c) Free
rider problem
d) Consumers
voluntarily pay for such goods
13. In
economics , a difference in access to relevant knowledge is called
a)
An informative gap
b)
A frontier gap
c)
Information asymmetry
d)
Access imperfection
14. Which
of the following is not a non-tax revenue?
a)
Fees b)
penalties c) custom duty d)
borrowings
15. Which
of the following is not canons of taxation?
a)
Canon of equity b)
canon of certainty c) canon
of benefit d) canon of elasticity
16. Incidence
of tax refers to which of the following?
a)
Final money burden of a tax
b)
Initial money burden of a tax
c)
Indirect money burden
d)
Real burden of tax
17. In the
case of perfectly elastic demand the money burden of tax is…………
a) Entirely
on the seller
b) Partially
on the seller
c) Entirely
on buyer
d) Shifted
partially to the buyer
18. Under
monopoly the incidence of lumpsum tax is……….
a) On the
sellers c) on
the buyers
b) Partially
on the sellers d) partially on the
buyers
19. Tax on
rich and luxury goods will ………
a) Increase
the investment
b) Check
inflation
c) Check
deflation
d) Check
recession
20. Which
of the following canons of public expenditure is very implement in developing
countries?
a) Canon
of elasticity
b) Canon
of sanction
c) Canon
of surplus
d) Canon
of productivity
21. Which
of the following type of public expenditure
is characterised by quid-pro-quo?
a) Grant b) subsidy c) interest d)
purchase prices
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic
of capital expenditure?
a) Is in
the form of consumption
b) Gives
right to capital assets
c) Usually
funded through price debt
d) Is in
the form of investment
23. Public
expenditure on education and heath will have a …………… effect on people’s ability
to work
a) Negative b) neutral c)
positive d) stagnating
24. During
recession,
a) Public
expenditure should be increased
b) Public
expenditure should be reduced
c) Taxation
should be increased
d) Public
debt should be incurred
25. The
law of increasing public activity was developed by………..
a) Richard
Musgrave b) hugh Dalton c) adolf wagner d) alan T peacock
CLASS:
S.Y.B.COM -IV SEM REGULAR
SUB : FINANCIAL ACCOUNT
MCQ
1) Issued capital is the part of _______
a) Subscribe capital b) Authorised capital
c) Called up Capital d) Paid up capital
2) Debenture stock
a) must be transferred in round amount as a whole
b)can be transferred even in fraction or odd
amount
c) may not be fully paid
d) must always be fully paid up
3) Redemption of preference shares
a) leads to reduction in authorised capital
b)does not change the authorised capital of
the company
c) increase the authorised capital
d) declared partly paid share
4) Debenture can be redeemed
a) only out of the proceeds of the fresh issue
of debenture
b) only out of divisible profit
c) only out of capital
d) out of capital or profit
5) The profit earned after incorporation
a) is deferred revenue income earned by the
company
b) is normal revenue profit earned by the
company
c) is capital profit
d) belongs to the vendors of the erstwhile
business
6) Reserve capital can be called up
a) in an emergency only
b) any time by passing an ordinary resolution
c) in the event and for the purpose of the
company being wound up
d) if all director agree
7) Debenture bonds
a)must be transferred in round amount as a
whole
b) can be transferred even in fraction or odd
amount
c) must always be fully paid up
d) may not the above
8) _________ balance is available for transfer
to capital Redemption Reserve
a) Forfeited shares Account
b) Profit prior to incorporation
c) Investment allowance reserve
d) General reserve
9) The periodical Interest received from
investment against debenture redemption reserves is credited to _______
a) Interest income account
b) Debentureholders account
c) Debenture account
d) Debenture redemption fund account
10) For the purpose of computing profit prior
to incorporation
a) Gross profit is divided in time ratio
b) Gross profit is divided in sales ratio
c) Gross profit is assumed to have arisen
entirely in the post incorporation period
d) Gross profit is assumed to have arisen
entirely in the post incorporation period
11) Subscribe capital can be
a) more than called up capital
b) more than issued capital
c) more than Authorised capital
d) equal to reserve capital
12) A debenture
a) is a document which creates or acknowledge a
ownership
b) is in the form of a certificate issued
under the seal of the company
c) shows the rate of amount of dividend payable
d) part of owned capital
13) Capital redemption reserves Account
a) may be created at the options of the
company, on redemption of preference shares
b)must be created to comply with law, on
redemption of preference shares
c) must be created to comply with law, on
conversion of preference shares into Equity share
d) is created out of forfeited shares Account,
on forfeiture of share
14) For the purpose of computing profit prior
to incorporation, gross profit is divided in sales ratio
a) based on the assumption that the amount of
gross profit per month remains the same
b) based on the assumption that the gross
profit ratio is the same during the year
c) based on the assumption that the amount of
sales per month remains the same
d) based on the assumption that the net profit
ratio is the same during the year
15) When debenture become due for redemption,
the entry is
a) debit debenture a/c ; credit bank a/c
b) debit Debentureholders a/c ; credit bank a/c
c) debit debenture a/c ; credit
Debentureholders a/c
d) debit Debentureholders a/c ; credit Interest
a/c
16) As per Table F of Schedule I to the
companies act, 2013 Interest on calls in arrears is payable @ ______ % p.a
a) 6 b) 5 c) 10 d) 12
17) Debenture may be issued
a) only at par
b) only at par or at premium
c) at discount only after obtaining sanction of
central government
d) at par or premium or discount without any
restriction
18) If the gross profit ratio has changed due
to change in sales prices, for the purpose of computing profit prior to
incorporation
a) Gross profit cannot be divided in sales
ratio
b) Gross profit cannot be divided in sales
ratio
c) Gross profit cannot be divided in sales
ratio
d) Gross profit cannot be divided in sales
ratio
19) For computing pre-incorporation profit,
fees to directors
a) is treated as pre-incorporation expenditure
b) is treated as post-incorporation
expenditure
c) is allocated in time ratio
d) is allocated in sales ratio
20) Jadu Ltd. reissue 2,000 shares of ₹ 10
each, which were forfeited by crediting share forfeited account by ₹ 3,000.
These shares were reissue ₹ 9 per share. The amount to be transferred to
capital reserve account will be
a) 3000 b) 2000 c) 1000 d) 500
21) Share are issued
a) for cash only
b) on credit only
c) for cash or for consideration other than
cash
d) for consideration other than cash
22) Debenture may be redeemable
a) only at par
b) at premium only upto 10%
c) at discount only upto 5%
d) at par or premium or discount without any
restriction
23) Till debenture are redeemed, loss on issues
of debenture is
a) shown on the liability side of balance sheet
b) Credited to P & L a/c
c) shown on the assets side of balance sheet
d) Debited to P & L a/c
24) Redeemable preference shares ₹50,000
redeemable at 5% premium and new issue of share ₹30,000 at premium of 20%
a) 20,000 b) 25,000 c) 22,000 d) 30,000
25) Company cannot sell charged assets until
the debenture are repaid, in case of
a) Debenture with fixed charge
b) Debenture with floating change
c) Register Debenture
d) Debenture stock
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