SYBFM - SEM IV - MCQ
MCQ – Multiple
Choice Questions
ONLINE EXAMS
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI
SYLLABUS
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CLASS: S.Y .B.F.M
SUB : business law 2
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. The
Company Act 1956 as amended by the
a. English
companies Act 1948
b. Indian
partnership Act 1932
c. Societies
Registration Act 1860
d.
The
Companies Act 2013
2. A
Company is a
a. A
human being
b.
An artificial
person created by law
c. A
natural individual
d. None
of the above
3. The
people who undertakes the process of formation of a company are
a.
Promoters
b. Directors
c. Registrar
of Companies
d. Secretary
4. In a
public company, the minimum number of members are
a. Five
or more
b. Three
or more
c.
Seven
or more
d. Less
than 10
5. Who
prepares the final plan of a company?
a. Registrar
b. Director
c.
Promoter
d. Joint
Secretary
6. A
company shall be formed for
a. Un-lawful
purpose
b. Social
welfare
c.
Lawful
purpose
d. Without
any purpose
7. Promoters
are the ones who come up with the idea of
a. Starting
club house
b. Starting
school
c. Starting
restaurant
d.
Starting
business
8. On
behalf of the proposed company, the promoters may enter into preliminary
contract with
a. Fourth
party
b. Secretary
of company
c.
Third
party
d. None
of them
9. The
person to be appointed as the director must have a
a. PAN
b. TAN
c. CIN
d.
DIN
10. A
document that invites the public to buy the shares of a company is
a. Memorandum
of Association
b.
Prospectus
c. Article
of Association
d. Certificate
of Incorporation
11. In
case of Solomon v/s Solomon and Co. Ltd. (1897 A.C. 22), the principle applied
first time was
a. Limited
Liability
b. May
Sue or be Sued
c. Transfer
of ownership
d.
Separate
Legal entity or separate legal existence
12. Separate
legal entity and perpetual succession are the
a. Disadvantages
of a company
b. Classification
of a company
c.
Features/Characteristics
of a company
d. Advantages
of a company
13. The
corporate veil is lifted by the court when
a. Court
considers a company as a separate legal entity
b.
Court ignores
the separate entity of a company
c. Without
any reason
d. Any
reason which court finds better
14. A
company being a corporate body, it can be
a.
Can
Sue and can be sued
b. Cannot
sue and cannot be sued
c. Is
above suit
d. No
right to sue
15. Shares
in public company are
a.
Easily
transferable
b. Non
transferable
c. Difficult
to transfer
d. Consent
to transfer is needed
16. A
company
a. May
die
b.
Has a
fixed life
c. Never
dies
d. Does
not have life
17. A
company owns the capital and shares of it’s
a.
Own
b. Members
c. Directors
d. Accountants
of the company
18. Property
of a company is owned by
a. Directors
b. Secretary
of a company
c. Other
company
d.
By
company itself
19. Company
has a perpetual existence
a. False
b.
True
c. Wrong
concept
d. Partly
true and partly false
20. Registration
of a company under Companies Act 2013 is
a. Not
obligatory
b.
Compulsory
c. As per
wish of directors
d. Any
other reason
21. Which
document should be annexed to the notice of the statutory meeting
a.
Statutory
report
b. Proxy
form
c. Explanatory
statement
d. No
document
22. A
companies’ nationality is decided by it’s
a. Share
holders
b.
Registration
office
c. Location
of body where accounts are kept
d. Address
of directors
23. The
liability of members of company is limited by guarantee of
a. Unpaid
value of shares
b.
Guarantee
amount
c. Unlimited
liability
d. Limited
liability
24. A Pvt.
Limited company can commence business at
a. Any
time
b.
After
obtaining certificate of incorporation (C.O.I.)
c. After
obtaining certificate of Commence Business (C.O.C.B.)
d. After
obtaining DIN
25. Memorandum
of Association does not include
a. Subscription
clause
b. Capital
clause
c. Liability
clause
d.
Assets
Clause
26. A
Special resolution is passed by
a. Simple
majority
b. 2/3rd
majority
c.
3/4th
majority
d. 3/5th
majority
27. A
memorandum is a document under sec 399 of the companies act 2013 as
a. Private
b. Secret
c.
Public
d. Open
to All
28. According
to which section of Companies Act 2013, requirements for memorandum of
association are provided?
a.
Section
4
b. Section
5
c. Section 6
d. Section
7
29. A
Company where a single individual holds all the shares of the company is called
as
a. Dormant
Company
b. Government
Company
c. Foreign
Company
d.
One
Person Company
30. A
company not having any limit on the liability of its members is called
a. Foreign
company
b. Limited
company
c.
Unlimited
company
d. Producer
company
31. Small
companies paid-up scheme does not exceed
a. 20
Lakh rupees
b.
50
Lakh rupees
c. More
than 2 Crore rupees
d. 5 Lakh
rupees
32. A
company that is incorporated out of India but has a place of business in India
is called
a. Can’t
exist
b. Dormant
company
c.
Foreign
company
d. Public
company
33. The
clause in memorandum of association which speaks about capital is
a. The
object clause
b. The
liability clause
c. The
address clause
d.
The
capital Clause
34. The
document which describes and regulates the relationship between a company and outsiders
is
a. Article
of Association
b. Prospectus
c.
Memorandum
of Association
D. Any other document
35. Which
is the second clause of the memorandum of association
a. Then
object clause
b. The
name clause
c. Address
clause
d. The
capital clause
36. Memorandum
of association in case of public company,it has to signed by
a. Five
subscriber
b. Two
subscriber
c. Seven
subscriber
d. Three
subscriber
37. Companies
those form on minimum number of promoters
a. Small
company
b. Foreign
company
c. Public,private,one
person company
d. No
such companies
38. Company
not for profit work for what cause
a. General
causes
b. Financial
causes
c. Unlawful
cause
d. Social/
welfare cause
39. The
company that have to follow SEBI’S guidelines is which company
a. Foreign
company
b. Governmental
company
c. Associate
company
d. Listed
company
40. Who
has to obtain digital signature certificate from certified authority
a. Secretary
of company
b. Advocate
of company
c. Account
of company
d. Promoters
and proposed first directors of company
41. What
dose RUN stands for
a. Permanent
account number
b. Director
identification number
c. Reserve
unique name
d. Memorandum
of association
42. Article
of association is called as
a. First
most important documents
b. Second
most important document
c. Not
important document
d. Not
legal document
43. Articles
of association its helps in
a. External
management of company
b. Internal
management of company
c. Not related
with any management
d. Partly
external and partly internal
44. Doctrine
of indoor management protect the interest of
a. Insiders
b. Outsiders
c. Special
party
d. Secretary
45. Provisions
for conversions of shares into stocks and vice versa are included in the document
name ?
a. Prospectus
of company
b. Memorandum
of company
c. No
such document exist
d. Article
of association
46. The
term ultra vires means
a. Beyond
the contract
b. Beyond
the limitations
c. Power
of memorandum
d. Beyond
the association
47. Which
section defines prospectus under company act 2013
a. Section
2(56)
b. Section
2(70)
c. Section
2(69)
d. Section
2(1)
48. Which
companies are exempted to add limited Ltd or Pvt Ltd at the end of their names
a. Private
b. Government
c. Dormant
d. Association
not for profit
49. A
person can be called as a member when the name is entered in
a. Register
of charges
b. List
of members
c. Register
of members
d. Register
of certified authority
50. Central
government permission is needed to conversion of ?
a. Private
to public
b. Public
to private
c. No
such permission is needed
d. Dormant
company to small company
CLASS:
SYBFM- IV SEM REGULAR
SUB : Debt Markets - II
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. A
fixed income security is often referred to as _____.
a) Bond b) Share c) Treasury bills d) Commercial Paper
2. In
return of loan, the borrower promises to pay the investor a specified _____.
a) Rate
of dividend b) Coupon rate c) Rate of interest d) Cash
3. With
fixed income securities, your total return on investment is denoted by its
_____.
a) Yield b) Dividend c) Interest
d) Coupon
4. The
primary source of return for fixed securities is _____.
a) Profit b) Capital appreciation c) Dividend
d) Coupon
5. From
below given options select characteristics of of fixed income securities:
a) Low
liquidity b) Not actively traded c) Capital stability d) Sensitivity to market interest rate
6. What
is the volatility of fixed income securities as compared to other asset classes
providing stable returns?
a) Lower b) Higher c) Medium
d) No volatility
7. From
below given options select disadvantage of of fixed income securities:
a) High
liquidity b) Actively traded c) Low liquidity d) Capital stability
8. Select
benefits of investing in Fixed income security:
a) Fixed
income source b) Not
actively traded c) Sensitive to market
interest rate d) Higher volatility
9. In
which year most Indian banks were nationalized?
a) 1968 b)1972
c) 1969 d)1970
10. _____
bonds dominate the debt markets.
a) Government b) Corporate c) Convertible d) Non-convertible
11. _____
manages government bond yields.
a) SEBI b) EXIM
c) NABARD d) RBI
12. Public
state undertakings bonds where central government owns more than _____ in the
company.
a) 62% b) 75%
c) 51% d) 49%
13. What
is the primary source of financing in India, China and South Korea?
a) Corporate
bond b) Government bond c) Commercial paper d) Treasury bills
14. A
critical positive is that the turnover in the Indian bond market is second only
to _____.
a) USA b) UK
c) Japan d) China
15. The
debt market in India consists of mainly two categories G-Sec and _____.
a) Corporate
bonds b) Share c) Commercial paper d) Term loans
16. The
entity that promises to make the payment is called the _____ of the security.
a) Investor b) Issuer
c) Creditor d) Debtor
17. _____
bonds are also known as Sovereigns and Treasuries.
a) Corporate
bonds b) Government bonds c)
Convertible bonds d) Non- convertible
bonds
18. A
_____ is an obligation or loan made by an investor to an issuer.
a) Share b) foreign currency c) Commercial paper d) Bond
19. _____
bond are also referred to as credit.
a) Corporate
bonds b) Government bonds c)
Convertible bonds d) Non- convertible
bonds
20. _____
are the safest type of short-term debt instrument issued by a government.
a) Commercial
paper b) Demand deposit accounts c)Treasury bills d) Money market mutual funds
21. _____
are short term promissory notes issued by a corporation.
a) Treasury
bills b) Banker’s acceptance c) Bonds
d) Commercial paper
22. _____
is an investment that combines the features of residential mortgages.
a) MBS b) Home loan c) Laddered portfolio d) Promissory notes
23. _____
are instruments purchased at a discount that mature at par.
a) Laddered
portfolio b) Term deposit c) Strip coupons and residual d) Commercial paper
24. _____
refers to unsecured promissory notes issued by large corporations.
a) Commercial
paper b) Treasury bills c) Bond
d) Demand deposits
25. In the
case of debt obligation, the issuer is called the _____.
a) Investor b) Broker
c) Trader d) Borrower
26. The
investor who purchase fixed income security is said to be _____.
a) Shareholder b) Debtor
c) Creditor d) Issuer
27. _____
are made to the preferred stockholder and represent a distribution of the
corporation’s profit.
a) Dividend
payments b)
Interest c) Credit d) Coupon
28. _____
can only realize a contractually fixed dividend payment.
a) Preferred
stock b) Equity stock c) Bond
d) Debenture
29. What
is it? When corporations issue bonds to the market as a whole.
a) Private
placement b) Public issue c) OTC
d) Stock exchange
30. In
India, more than 90% corporate bonds are issued through _____.
a) Private
placement b)
Public issue c) Banks d) Stock exchange
31. _____
bonds have a coupon that remains constant throughout the life of the bond.
a) Floating
rate b) Zero-coupon c)
Non-convertible d) Fixed rate
32. _____
features gives a bond issuer the right, but not the obligation, to redeem his
issue of bonds before the bond’s maturity and predetermined price and date.
a) Bond
with put option b) Bond with call
option c) Bond with single
redemption d) Amortising bonds
33. Currently
there are only two instrument that FIIs can invest in India, i:e, _____ and
debt.
a) Equity b) Gold c) Foreign currency d) Bank deposits
34. _____
bonds are essentially debt offered in one currency while the interest payments
and redemption are determined in another.
a) Indexed
bonds b) Dual currency bonds c) Bull/bear bonds d) Junk bonds
35. _____
bonds is essentially meant to be a hedge against a certain benchmark.
a) Indexed
bonds b) Dual currency
bonds c) Bull/bear bonds d) Junk bonds
36. A
laddered portfolio helps spread _____ over the long term, helping to average
out the effects of overall interest rate changes.
a) Inflation
risk b) Time risk c) Reinvestment risk d)Call risk
37. Bond
with _____ gives a bond issuer the right, but not the obligation.
a) Call
option b) Put
option c) Interest option d) Holding option
38. Hybrid
instruments have both the features of _____ and debenture.
a) Equity b) Commodity c) Commercial paper d) Bills of exchange
39. There
are two main ways in which you can buy hybrid securities. They are _____ and
Secondary market.
a) Stock
exchange b) Retail bank c) Primary market d) NBFC
40. Historically
the bond market has been less vulnerable to price swings or volatility than the
_____ market.
a) Commodity b) Foreign exchange c) Money
d) Stock
41. _____
is the annual interest rate the issuer promises to pay the investors.
a) Dividend b) Coupon rate c) Profit rate d) Interest
42. _____
is the chance of loss or the variability of returns or uncertainty associated
with a given asset.
a) Risk b) Return c) Capital appreciation d) Yield
43. _____
is the total gain or loss expected or experienced by the owner of a financial
asset or investment over a given period of time.
a) Risk b) Return
c) Capital appreciation d)
Yield
44. An
investor bought a share of Sony Corp. Stock one year ago for Rs.40. Today it
can be sold for Rs 43.50. She received Rs 1.50 in dividends during the year.
What is her actual return for the year?
a) 13% b) 14.5%
c) 12.5% d) 15%
45. _____
is the risk that the bond market as a whole would decline, bringing the value
of individual securities down with it regardless of their fundamental
characteristics.
a) Timing
risk b) Legislative risk c) Call risk
d) Market risk
46. _____
is the risk that an investment performs poorly after its purchase or better
after its sale.
a) Timing
risk b) Legislative
risk c) Call risk d) Market risk
47. _____
risk that a borrower will be unable to make interest or principal payments when
they are due and therefore default.
a) Legislative
risk b) Call risk c) Market risk d) Credit risk
48. _____
risk that a bond’s issuer undertakes a leveraged buyout, debt restructuring,
merger or recapitalization.
a) Event
risk b) Call risk c) Sector risk d) Market risk
49. _____
is the risk that declines interest rates or a strong housing market will cause
mortgage holders to refinance or otherwise repay their loans sooner than
expected and thereby create an early return of principal to holders of the
loans.
a) Event
risk b) Prepayment risk c) Extension risk d) Contraction risk
50. _____
reflects the relationship between the total coupon interest payments remaining
between now and maturity.
a) Yield
to maturity b)
Dividend payout c) Interest d) Profit
CLASS: S.Y.BFM SEM4
SUB : COMMODITY DERIVATIVE
MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)
1. The
government of India appointed in June 1993 a committee on forward Market under
chairmanship of
a) Malhotra b) K.N.Kabra c) Khusro d)Agarwal
2. Investment
assets are assets that are held for
a) Investment b)
Consumption c) Spending d) Creating shortage
3. use the future markets to reduce a price risk
that they face in their daily operations
a) Hedgers b) Speculators c) Arbitrageurs d)Margin traders
4. Which
option leads to zero cash flow to the holder if it were exercised immediately
a) In
the money b) At the money c)out of the money d) Put
5. The
critical factor affecting the
agricultural commodities
a) Inflation b) government c) Taxes d) Monsoon
6. Gradually
future prices will fall leading to convergence of future price with
a) Spot b)
increase c) Forward d) option
7. Gold
and silver makeup for this complex called
a) Base
metals b)energies c) asset
d) precious metals
8. As
compared to spot price the future contract is priced
a) Lower b) Higher c)equal d) different
9. To
coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member countries is thr
mission of
a) FMC b) SEBI
c)WTO d)OPEC
10. Economic
uncertainty can influence the price of
a) Gold b)copper c) natural gas d)metals
11. The
difference between spot price and future’ price is called
a) Discount b) at par
c)Basis d) Premium
12. Which
contract is an exchange traded standardized contract
a) Forward b) Future c) exchange d) options
13. Which
of the below is not a type of derivative
a) Swap b) option control c) Forward
d) Hedgers
14. The
traders who buy and sell asset to sell them back profitability
a) Hedgers b) speculators c)Arbitrageurs d)Margin trade
15. OPEC
was founded in
a) Baghdad
Iraq b)Mumbai
India c)Dubai UAE d)Iran
16. What
is the nature of forward contract
a) Unorganised b) standardized c) Tailor made d) organized
17. Warehouse
in commodity future work as
a) Second
party b)agent c) third party d) company
18. What
forms a basic platform of delivery based trading in commodity futures
a) Warehousing b) Commodity
c) Derivatives d) Finance
19. The
new york board of trade was founded in
a) 1980 b)1870
c)2000 d)2012
20. Which
commodity is traded in comex division
a) Cobalt b)Steel
c)gold d)alloy
21. Which
is a minor metal
a) Cobalt b)Gold c)Silver
d) Aluminium
22. Bursa
Malaysia derivatives exchange deals in
a) Gold b)Metals
c)Zinc d)Palm oil
23. Which
is the largest exchange in Japan
a) ZCE b)TOCOM
c)LIFFE d)SHFE
24. LIFFE
is also known as
a) Cocoa b)ZCE
c) Euro Next d) Trade
exchange
25. Which
commodity exchange is ranked as world’s 11th largest in 2016
a)ZCE b) TOCOM
c) SHFE d)
Dalian Commodities exchange
26. A
hedge that requires a long position in future contracts is called as
a) Short
hedge b)long hedge c) Hedger d) speculation
27. The
participants who are willing to take risk of hedgers in expectation of making
profit
a) Hedgers b) Arbitrary c) speculator d) Customer
28. The
participant who buys take long position in future contracts
a) Speculation b) Arbitrageur c)Hedger d) contractor
29. Agreements
between two counter parties to exchange a series of cash payment for a stated
period of time
a) Futures b) Insurance c)forward contract d)Swap
30. The
pre decided price at which asset can be bought or sold
a) Strike
price b)
Expiry c) Premium d) Money option
31. Which
option leads to negative cash flow
a) Intrinsic
value option b)At the money option c) out of the money option d) In the money option
32. A
type of security that can be bought or sold at a specified price within a
specified period of time in exchange for a non refundable upfront deposit
a) Option b)
Forward c) payoff d)FOREX
33. Agriculture
accounts for about how much percentage of total export earnings
a) 14.7% b)
15% c)20% d) 25%
34. What
is the second preference after gold
a) Cobalt b) silver c) Aluminium d) Steel
35. The
crude oil is called as
a) Poor
gold b) silver c)black gold d) natural gold
36. The
Khusro Committee was found in
a) June
1980 b)
July 1980 c) September 1990 d) April 1980
37. Something
derived or obtained from another coming from a source mot original is
a) Commodities b) derivative c) security d)asset
38. The
most traditional form of derivative contract
a) Future
contract b) Forward contract c) options contract d)swaps
39. The
National stock exchange of India commenced trading in derivatives with the launch
of index futures on
a) June
12 2005 b) July 30 2000 c) June 12 2000 d) Aug 12 2000
40. Currency
future is also known as
a) FX
future b)
contract c) Derivative d)
Exchange
41. Largest
commodity derivative exchange in India
a) Forex b) MCX c) NSE d)GBP
42. The
warehouse receipt is used for commodity finance as
a) E
pledge b)
exchange c) contract d) option
43. Kansas
city board of trade specialize in
a) Wheat b) crude oil c) Red winter wheat d)coal
44. Chicago
mercantile exchange was first named as
a) Chicago butter and egg board b)
Chicago exchange c) Chicago derivative
market d) Chicago market
45. Commodity
traded in NYMEX division
a) Coal b) gold
c)gasoline d)silver
46. Singapore
commodity exchange was founded in
a) 1997 b) 1992
c) 1990 d) 1995
47. Sydney
futures exchange has specialised in
a) Wool
and cattle futures b)gasoline c) kerosene
d) Aluminium
48. MCX
is based in
a) Delhi b) Bangalore c) Chennai
d)Mumbai
49. Interests
rate have a big influence on gold prices because of a factor known as
a) Direct
cost b) historic cost c) opportunity cost d) indirect cost
50. The
option which is the difference between premium and intrinsic value
a) Time
value of an option b)
Intrinsic value of an option c)out of
money option d)basic pay off
CLASS:
SYBFM – IV SEM REGULAR
SUB: BUSINESS ECONOMICS – II (MACRO ECONOMICS)
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. ……..
serves as a useful yardstick to measure the annual performance of a country’s
economy.
a) National
income b) per capita
income c) total product d) circular flow
2. National
income is the flow of goods and services produced in an economy in course of
………
a) A year b) a month c) six month d) 15 days
3. Green
accounting can play a crucial role in
the ……. .
a) Sustainable
development
b) economic
development
c) rural
development
d) urban
development
4. J.B
Say was ………..
a) German
economist b) French economist c) American economist d) swiss economist
5. The
duration of trade cycle may very from a minimum of ……..
a) 2
years to a maximum of 12 years
b) 3
years to a maximum of 12 years
c) 1 year
to a maximum of 12 years
d) 2
years to a maximum of 14 years
6. John
Maynard Keynes is ……….. .
a) German
economist b) Swiss economist c) French economist d) American economist
7. According
to Keynes, investment expenditure is the main determinants ……….
a) The
level of employment
b) The
level of income
c) The
level of investment
d) The
level of saving
8. The
consumption function or propensity to consume refers……….
a) To
income saving relationship
b) To
income investment relationship
c) To income
consumption relationship
d) Demand
and supply relationship
9. Keynesian
economist is ………
a) Micro
economics b) macro economics c) monetary economics d) welfare economics
10. ………..
is transferred from one person to another in a given period of time is known as
‘’the velocity of circulation of money’’
a) The
maximum number of times money
b) The
average number of times money
c) The
minimum number of times money
d) Less
average number of times money
11. Inflation
is found …….
a) All
over the world
b) Only
in developed countries
c) Only
is less developed countries
d) In
underdeveloped countries
12. ‘’Too
much of money chasing too few goods’’ is definition of inflation given by…
a) Crowther
b) coulbourn c) samuelson d) JM Keynes
13. Demand
pull inflation is an inflation which results from an initial - ……..
a) Increase
in wage rate
b) Increase
in aggregate demand
c) Increase
in natural resources
d) Decrease
in aggregate demand
14. In
hyper inflation there will be ………
a) 10%
increase in price per annum
b) 05%
increase in price per annum
c) 15% increase
in price per annum
d) No
upper limit of price demand
15. During
inflation gainers are -
a) Common
man b) debtors c) creditors d)
accountant
16. Inflation
targeting was first adopted by ……………. In
1989.
a) The
reserve bank of new Zealand
b) The
reserve bank of new England
c) The
reserve bank of new America
d) The
reserve bank of india
17. The
reserve bank of India (RBI) officially adopted inflation targeting as a
monetary policy strategy in February………. .
a) 2014 b) 2016 c) 2015 d) 2017
18. Inflation
targeting is a …………. Where the central bank sets a specific inflation rate as
its target or goal.
a) Fiscal
policy b) monetary policy c) administrative policy d) financial institution
19. A
persistent and appreciable rise in the general level of prices is called ……….
a) Recovery
b) expansion c) deflation d) inflation
20. The term
‘macro’ was first used in economics by Ragner Frisch in ………. .
a)
1933 b) 1944 c) 1988 d)
1947
21. The term
‘macro’ is derived from the greek word ……….. meaning large.
a)
Economics b) makros c) micro d)
household
22. ………. Is
required to satisfy the human wants by purchasing goods & services.
a) money b) labor c)
land d) bank
23. The concept
of …………. serves as a useful yardstick to measure the annual performance of a
country’s economy.
a) state
income b) national income c) foreign
income d) government income
24. National income is one of the important subject
matter of ……….. .
a) micro
economics b) managerial economics c) econometrics d) macro economics
25. ………… refers
to the flow of goods and services produced in an economy in course of a year.
a) state
income b) national income c) foreign
income d) government income
26. The …………….is
an index of economic growth with the environmental consequences of that growth
factored into a country’s conventional GDP.
a) green gross domestic product b) white gross domestic product
c) black
gross domestic product d)
orange gross domestic product
27. ………. Is a
state of the mind which reflects human happiness and satisfaction .
a) income
earning b) per capita income c)
welfare d) GDP
28. Increase in
general price level is known as ……….. .
a)
deflation b) recession c) expansion d) inflation
29. A………… refers
to fluctuation in economic activities specially in employment, output and
income, prices,profits.
a) trade cycle b) welfare cycle c)
income cycle d) import
& export
30. When there
is an expansion of output, income , employment , prices and profits, there is
also rise in the standard of living. This period is termed as ……….. phase.
a)
recession b) prosperity c)
business cycle d) depression
31. American
economist john maynard Keynes in his book, ‘’……………..” has contradicted this
view point of the earlier economists.
a) General theory of Employment interest
and money
b) General
theory of Employment income and money
c) General
theory of Unemployment interest and money
d) Theory
of Employment interest and money
32. ………. Is
refers to the total demand of the community for all goods and services produced
by the community.
a)
Aggregate supply b) Break even point c) equilibrium d) aggregate demand
33. The velocity
of circulation of money depends upon the supply of …….. in the economy.
a)
inflation b) money c) income d) demand
34. ………… is paid
to workers can be paid on a daily, weekly or monthly basis.
a) wage b)
payment c) salary d) bonus
35. Inflation is
a state in which the value of money is falling i.e. the prices are rising. This
definition is given by…..
a) Alfred
marshall b) crowther c) JM Keynes d) Mary parker
36. ……….
inflation refers to a situation where prices rise on account of increasing cost
of production.
a) demand
pull b) per capita
income c) supply of money d) cost
push
37. When price
rise, the value of money………. .
a) rises b) falls c)
constant d) becomes poor
38. Person who
hold shares or stocks of companies …….. during inflation.
a) gain b)
lose c) bankrupt d) insolvent
39. ……….
Policy is concerned with the measures to regulate the supply of money, the cost
and availability of credit in the economy.
a) fiscal
policy b)
monetary policy c) real
policy d) demand policy
40. The
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) officially
adopted …………… as a monetary policy strategy in February,2015.
a)
inflation targeting b)
recession targeting c) audience
targeting d) marketing
41. When a person
buys shares, bonds or debentures of a public limited company from the market,
it is generally said that he has made………… .
a) LIC
policy b) loss in business c) investment d) SIP
42. Which of the
following is not included in transfer payments?
a) services
of housewife b) small items
produced for self-consumption
c) barter
transaction d)
wages to labour
43. Which
of the following is illegal activities?
a) sale of
mango b) sale of weapons c) sale of clothes d) sale of water bottles
44. Mention the
full form of PPP .
a)
purchasing power parity b)
purchasing pain parity
c) pension power party d) purchasing power policy
45. GNP = GDP +
……………… .
a) Income
from local area b) income from abroad
c) income from business d) income from nation
46. In terms of
population, which country ranked second in the world?
a) Africa b) Australia c) china d)
India
47. Income earned by an individual in a given year is called as ……….
.
a) income
from abroad b) per
capita income
c) GDP d)
GNP
48. Who is
current finance minister of India?
a)
Manmohan singh b)
narendra modi c) nirmala sitharaman d)
om birla
49. The government of India confirmed India’s
first case of coronovirus disease 2019 on 30th January 2020 in the
state of ………. .
a)
Maharashtra b) kerala c) uttar Pradesh d)
tamil nadu
50. The great
Depression was a severe world wide economic depression that took place mostly
during……… .
a) 1919-1920 b) 1920-1921 c)1929-1930 d) 1914-
CLASS: SYBFM-IV SEM REGULAR
SUB : EQUITY MARKET
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1 . The ______ is the market
for trading equity instrument.
a. Equity market() b.
stock() c. SEBI()
d. NSE()
2. ______ are securities that
are a claim on the earnings and assets of corporation.
a.
NSE() b. T+2()
c . stock() d. NEFT()
3. _________ introduced the
screen based trading and settlement system, supported by a state-of-the art
technology platform.
a.
stock() b. NEFT()
C. clearing corporation() d. NSE()
4. the settlement cycle is
now_________.
a. equity market() b.
NSE() c. BSE() d. T+2()
5. The RBl introduced the
electronic funds transfer system_________.
a. SEBI() b. NEFT() c . RTGS()
d.IMPS()
6.The______ is usually the
legal counter-party to net obligation of each brokerage firm and is responsible
for eliminating counter-party risk.
a. Clearing corporation() b. NEFT()
c . SEBI() d . NSE()
7._______ and ________ are the
regulatory institution for financial markets.
a. 1992()
b. 1935() c . SEBI() d. RBI&SEBI()
8. SEBI was establish in the
year ______.
a . 1992() b. 1942 ()
c . 1990 () d . 2010()
9. RBI came into existence on
_________.
a. 1935() b.1949()
c. 1948() d.1938()
10.RBI became the public
sector bank from______.
a. 1949() b. 1952()
c. 1962 d. 1975()
11._____ helps to provide a
degree of protection to the investors and safeguard their rights and to ensure
that there is a steady flow of funds in the market.
a. SEBI() b .
BSE() c . NSE() d. RBI()
12. ______is a quasi-judicial
body that exercise some of the quasi-judicial and judicial power under the act
previously exercised by the high court and the central Government.
a. The company low Board() b. 1992()
c . SEBI() d. NEFT()
13. The law governing
companies in India is _______
a. Indian Companies act, 1956() b. 1992() c. 1956d. NSE()
14. Companies Act 1956 was
replaced by _______ act.
a. Company
Act 2013() b. 1942() c. 1956() d . 2011()
15. Listing is mandatory for
------------------.
a. Trading in stock market() b. Marketing a new issue() c. Trading in international markets()
d. Declaring dividend()
15. A stock market index -------------.
a.
Shows trends in the market()
b. Provides weights to shares()
c. Show the volume of trade in market() d. Shows transactions of shares ()
16. A lame duck is a
---------------.
a. bull who does not keep his
promise() b. bear who cannot keep his
commitments()
c.
cautious speculator() d.
premium hunter()
17. Which of the following is
a global stock market index?
a. OTCEI index() b. Nifty() c. Sensex() d. FTSE100
18. Which
of the following is not a global stock market index?
a. DJIA()
b. S&P 500 index() c.
MCSI index () d. S& P CNX ()
19.
S&P CNX was introduced in ---------------.
a. 1996 () b. 1998 () c. 1986 () d. None of these()
20. The base year of BSE Sensex is --------------.
a. 1978‐79() b. 1979‐80() c. 1977‐78 () d. None of these()
21.
The base year of CNX nifty junior is
----------------.
a. 1997 ()
b. 1996 ()
c. 1999 () d.
1995()
22.
The number of scrip’s included in nifty junior
is --------------.
a. 40() b. 50() c. 30() d. 100()
23. CDSL is established in ----------------.
a. 2000 () b. 1999() c. 1998 () d. 1997 24()24.Depositories
Act is enacted in -----------------.
a. 1993 ()
b. 1998 () c.
1997() d. 1996()
25. The present rolling settlements cycle T+2 is introduced
in ---------------.
a. 2003() b. 2001() c. 2000 () d. 2008()
26. Group A consists of -----------------.
a. Cleared securities()B. Non‐ Cleared securities()c.
Government securities()d. None of these()
27. Permanent removal of securities of a company from the
stock exchange.
a. De-listing()
b. Re‐
listing() c. Listing() d. None of these()
28. The Nifty consists of -----------------.
a. 30 stocks()
b. 25 stocks() c. 50
stocks() d. 100 stocks()
29. A control system on excessive fluctuation in stock
market prices is called-------------.
a. Circuit breaker() b. Stock index() c. Depository() d. None of these()
30. The numbers of recognized stock exchanges in India is
----------.
a. 20 ()b. 21()c.22 ()d.23()
31. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is
the market where the existing securities of companies are traded.
a.Primary market()b. Secondary market ()c.Money
market()d. None of these()
32. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is
the process of admitting securities for trading on a recognized stock exchange.
a. Issuing()b. Investing()c. Listing() d. None of these()
33.
Devise adopted to make profit out of the difference in prices of a security in
two different markets is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Arbitrage()b. Margin trading()c. Call option()d.
None of these()
34. The number of store which
is less than the standard unit is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Arbitrage()b. Margin trading()c. Odd lots()d.
None of these()
35. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a
professional independent broker who deals in securities on his own behalf.
a. Arbitrage()b. Jobber()c. Odd lots()d. None of these
()
36. A
person appointed by a stock broker to assist him in the business of securities
trading is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Sub
broker()b. Tarawaniwalas()c. Authorized clerk d. None of these() 37. Speculators who
neither buy nor sell securities in the market but still trade on them are
called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Wolves()b. Stags ()c. Bears()d. None of these()
38.
The process of hedging the entire supply of a particular security with a view
to dictating term is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Wash sale()b. Arbitrage()c. Cornering()d. None of these()
39.
Under depository system the allotment and credit of shares to the beneficiary
amount should be completed within how many days from the date of an issue?
a. 15 days()b. 21 days() c. 7 days()d. 14 days()
40. Member of stock exchanges is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Stock broker() b. Investor()c. Issuer()d. None
of these()
41. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ buy
and sell securities on behalf of the investing public.
a. Arbitrage()b. Commission brokers()c. Stock
broker()d. None of these()
42. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is
the person who buys securities with a view to sell them in future at a profit.
a. Speculator()b. Issuer() c. Stock brokers()d.
None of these()
43. A
person who sells the shares with the expectation of buying them in future at a
reduced price.
a. Bull ()b. Bear ()c. Stag ()d. None of these()
44. In the Indian stock exchange a bull is known as
------------.
a. Badla()b. Tejiwala ()c. Mandiwala ()d. None of
these()
45.
Risk involved in gambling is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. High()b. Low ()c. Very high()d. None of these()
46.
The process of artificially increasing or
decreasing the price is known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Price
bond()b. Price rigging ()c. Cover system()d. None of these()
47.
An order for the purchase of securities of a
fixed price is known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Limit
order()b. Open order ()c. Stop loss order()d. None of these()
48.
The electronic clearing and Depository system
set up by the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. SGL ()b. SHCIL ()c. HCL ()d.
None of these()
49.
National stock exchange operations are divided
into ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ and capital market
segment.
a.
Whole sale debt market ()b.
Money market()
c. Secondary market d. None of these()
50.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a
market where unlisted securities are dealing.
a.
Grey market ()b.
Kerb market ()c. Capital markets()
d. None of these()
CLASS:S.Y.B.F.M IV-SEM REGULAR
SUB:Corporate Finance
MCQ(50
Questions)
1.____in charge of financial operations.
a.CFO() b.Treasurer() c.Controller() d.CEO()
2.____is the chief Accounting officer.
a.CFO()
b.Treasurer() c.Controller() d.CEO()
3.________capital called as short term,
Fianance.
a.Fixed()
b.Current() c.Working() d.creeping()
4.______doesn’t issue when company earn
unstable.
a.Equity ()
b.Debenture() c.Preference() d.Loan()
5.Cost of debenture is represented by________
a.Kd()
b.r() c.t () d.f()
6.Reedem value of debenture is represented
by______
a.Kd()
b.ry()
c.t() d.f()
7._______cost deals with discount.
a.Explict() b.Implict()
c.Marginal() d.Regional()
8._____is combined cost of each components.
a.Explict() b.Implict() c.Wegihted() d.Marginal()’
9.____is also known as incremental cost.
a.Weighted cost() b.Marginal cost() c.Implicit cost() d.Explicit cost()
10._____is that activity which is concerned
with the acquisition and conservation of
capital funds in meeting the financial needs.
a.Business
finance() b.Economic()
c.Physical() d.Psychological()
11.____decision is taken by valuing different
projects where expected the return and risk are considered.
a.Investment() b.fianancial() c.Economical() d.Physical()
12.In this case investment is made in current
assets for less than one year.____a.short
term() b.Medium term() c.Long term()
d.Marginal()
13._____planning involves analyzing short term
and long term money flows to and from the firm.
a.Financial() b.Short () c.Physical() d.Commercial()
14.________Forecast is a prediction of cash
inflows and outflows in future periods, usually months and quarters.
a.Cash
flow()
b.Physical() c.Mental() d.Arts()
15.________forecast is a prediction of
revenues,costs and expenses for a period longer than 1 year.
a.Long
term() b.short term() c.Medium term() d.General()
16._______budget highlights a firms spending
plans for major assets purchased that required large sums of money.
a.Capital() b.Cash() c.Operating () d.Leverage()
17._______financing is the process of using
inventory such as raw materials as collateral for a loan.
a.Inventory() b.cash()
c.Physical() d.Non monetary()
18.____captial are funds that come to the firm
from borrowing through lending institutions or from the sale of bonds.
a.Equity()
b.Debt() c.Equity and Debt() d.creditors()
19.______loans that are not backed by
collateral.
a.Secured()
b.unsecured() c.inventory() d.Creditors()
20.______financing comes from the owners of the
firm,
a.Debentures()
b.Equity() c.Stock()
d.Creditors()
21._____is the profit the company keeps and
reinvests in the firm.
a.Retained
earnings() b.Profit and Loss() c.Venture capital() d.Loss()
22._______money is invested in new companies
with great profit potential.
a.Venture
capital () b.LBO() c.Growth capital() d.Funds()
23.______are obtained for investment in
business.
a.Cash()
b.stock () c.Funds() d.Debtors()
24.________finance is the area of finance
dealing with the sources of funding and the capital structure of corporations.
a.Corporate() b.Captial() c.Monetary () d.Short term()
25._____are also associated with investment
banking.
a.Corporate
financier() b.Buisness advisor()
c.fianancial advisor() d.Buisness administrator()
26.The principal source of finance,______
a.Equity
and preference shares() b.Debenture()
c.Loan from bank () d.Bonds()
27.The fifth source of finance is______
a.Equity()
b.Preference() c.Indigenous banks() d.Banks()
28.The 3rd source of corporate
finance is________
a.Banks ()
b.Public deposits() c. Indigenous banks() d.Shares()
29.Capital Investment Decisions constitute of
______decisions.
a.3() b.2()
c.4() d.1()
30The proportion of profits distributed as
dividends is called the______
a.Dividend
payout ratio()
b.retention ratio() c.Bonus() d.Cash()
31.____is merely the interest rate paid by the
company on such debt.
a.Cost
of debt()
b.Cost of capital() c.Equity() d.debenture()
32.CAPM stands for______
a.Capital
Asset Pricing Model()
b.credit Asset Pricing Model()
c.cash Asset Pricing Model()
d.Credit Assessment Pricing Model()
33._______refrers to the valuation of the total
business.
a.Capitalization()
b.Debenture() c.equity()
d.owners fund()
34.Capitalization of sum total of_____
a.Owned capital() b.Borrowed
capital ()
c.Owned and Borrowed() d.Bonds()
35.____is the measurement of the sacrifice made
by the investors in order to invest with a view to get a fair return in future.
a.Cost
of capital() b.Cost of Debt ()c.Cost of Debenture()
d.Cost of Asset
36.WACC stands for____
a.Watered asset cost of capital()
b.Weighted
Average cost of Capital()
c.Whether Average cost of capital()
d.Waste Average cost of capital()
37.When earnings are retained in the business
,shareholders are forced to forgo ________
a.dividend() b.Interest()
c.Income() d.salary()
38.______is defined as the cost of raising one
extra rupee of capital.
a.Marginal
cost of capital() b.Advance cost of capital()
c.Cost of capital() d.Cardianal()
39.________of any source may be defined as the
discount rate that equates the present value of the funds received.
a.Explicit
cost of capital() b.Implicit cost of capital()
c.Marginal cost of capital() d.Additional cost()
40.________may be defined as the rate of retrun
associated with the best investment opportunity for the firm and shareholders.
a.Implicit
cost of capital() b.Explicit cost of capital()
c.Marginal cost of capital() d.nominal cost()
41.Redemption Ltd issued Rs.100 lakhs 14%
Debentures of Rs.100 each,Tax rate is 40%.Calculate the cost of debt in each of the following
a.8.40%
() b.9.40%() c.10.40%()
d.5.60%()
42.Find out of cost of capital
Dividend 20%,Net proceeds per share Rs.110
a.18.18%()
b.17.18% () c.16.18%() d.20.18%()
43.Ke stands for
a.Cost
of equity capital() b.Cost of Preference capital()
c.cost of Debt( d.Cost of sales()
44.Calculate Ke.
EPS=90, MPS=10
a.Rs.9() b.Rs.8() c.Rs.7() d.Rs.10()
44.Earning yield method
Calculate Ke=EPS
Profit after tax=Rs.25000 ,No of equity shares =2000
a.6.94() b.5.94() c.4.94() d.2.94()
45.Calculate cost of equity
Dividend per share -Rs.2.70, Market value per share=Rs.15
a.18%() b.20%() c.24%() d.25%()
46.Calculate EPS
Net profit after tax –Rs.36,00,000 .No of equity share=20,00,000shares
a.Rs.1.80() b.Rs.2.00() c.Rs.1.40() d.Rs.2.20()
47.Calulate P/V ratio
Contribution Rs.4000 Sales-Rs.20000
a.20%() b.30% () c.40% () d.10%()
48.Calculate BEP
Fixed cost Rs.18000 P/V ratio =40%
a.Rs.45000() b.Rs.48000() c.Rs.50000() d.Rs.55000()
49.Calculate Margin of safety
Actual sales=Rs50000 BEP sales Rs.45000
a.Rs.5000
()
b.Rs.4000() c.Rs.3500() d.Rs.4500()
50.Calculate of margin of safety
Profit Rs.30000 P/V ratio=20%
a.Rs.150000()
b.Rs.100000 ()
c.Rs.110000() d.Rs.140000()
CLASS: S.Y.BFM-VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : FOUNDATION COURSE
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. ________ equity refers to the need for a
just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations, and fair and
impartial treatment of future generations.
a. INTRA-GENERATIONAL() b.
ECO-GENERATIONAL()
c.INTERGENERATIONAL() d.
GENERATIONAL()
2. It
is ________ that a person filing a case under PIL should have a direct interest
in public interest litigation.
a. NECESSARY() b. NOT NECESSARY() c. iMPORTANT() d. VITAL()
3. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is
preplaced by Consumer Protection Act, ________
a. 2019 () b. 2014() c. 2020 () d.
2015()
4. Under Consumer Protection
Act 2019, the State Commission deals with consumer complaints, where the value
of goods/services and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________
crore.
a. 20() b. 30() c.
10() d. 15()
5. The Consumer Protection Act
2019 came into force with effect from ________
a. 20th JULY 2019()
b. 21st AUGUST 2019() c. 20th JULY 2020() d. 1sr APRIL 2020()
4. The Consumer Protection Act
2019, the District Forum deals with consumer complaints, where the value of
goods/services and compensation, if any claimed does not exceed INR ________
crore.
a. 1() b. 5() c. 10() d. 20()
5. Under the ‘Rights to
________’, a consumer has the right to be protected against certain goods which
are dangerous to human life.
a. SAFETY() b. BE HEARD() c. CHOOSE() d. BE INFORMED()
6. Under the ‘Rights to
________’, a consumer has the right to register complaints and grievances
relating to products which he/she uses.
a. CHOOSE() b. BE INFORMED() c. SAFETY() d. BE HEARD()
7. The Consumer Protection
Act, the National Commission at the national level deals with complaints of
amount that exceeds INR ___________ crore.
a. 20() b. 10() c. 15() d. 25()
8. The Essential Services
Maintenances Act ensures the delivery of certain services, which if ________
would affect the normal life of the people.
a. PROVIDED() b. GUARDED() c. DELIVERED() d. OBSTRUCTED()
9.PIL means, litigation filed
in a ________ for the protection of public interest that generally affects a
group of persons or society at large.
a. STATE LITIGATION
DEPARTMENT() b. CENTRAL GOVERNMENT
DEPARTMENT()
c. COURT OF LAW() d.
STATE SECRETARIATE()
10. The Right to Information
Act, 2005 came into force with effects from _________ 2005.
a. 26th AUGUST() b. 2nd OCTOBER() c. 20th JULY() d. 15th
JUNE()
11. The main objective of PIL
is to protect __________
a. PUBLIC INFORMATION() b.
GOVERNMENT INTEREST()
c. PRIVATE INTEREST() d.
PUBLIC INTEREST()
12. The concept of Citizens’
Charter was first introduced and implemented in the ________ in 1991.
a. UNITED STATES OF AMERICA() b
INDIA()
c. UNITED KINGDOM() d.
PORTUGAL()
13. _________ is the first state in India to introduce the Right to
Public Services Act in 2010.
a. UTTAR PRADESH() b. MADHYA PRADESH() c. MAHARASHTRA() d.
GOA()
14. ____________ is the
facility set up by the central government organisations to provide information
to citizens about their programmes/ schemes, rules and procedures, etc.
a. INFORMATION CENTRE() b.
INFORMATION AND FACILITATION COUNTER ()
c. INFORMATION WEBSITE() d. PROGRAMMES INFORMATION()
15. The Indian Contract Act
was passed in the year ____________
a. 1872 () b. 1990 () c. 1986 () d.
2020()
16. In India, Citizens’
Charter was implanted in the year ___________
a. 2000 () b.
2005 () c. 1999 () d. 1997()
17. The Right to Information
Act was first introduced in __________ state.
a. GUJARAT() b. TAMIL NADU () c.
GOA() d. RAJASTHAN()
18. PIL refers to ___________
a. PUBLIC INTEREST
LITIGATION() b.
PUBLIC INFORMATION LITIGATION()
c. POLICE INFORMATION
LITIGATION() d.
PRIVATE INFORMATION LITIGATION()
19. In India, the Citizens’
Charter was first introduced in the _________ sector.
a. EDUCATION() b. AIRLINES() c. BANKING() d. INSURANCE()
20. The Department of
Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) as set up by Government of
India as a ________ agency relating to Citizens’ Charters.
a. IMPLEMENTING() b. PROVIDING() c. COORDINATING() d. SERVING()
21. A citizens’ charter is a
document setting out the rights of _________ which guarantees the right to
redress on occasions where public services failed to meet certain standards.
a. CITIZENS() b. SENIOR CITIZENS() c. MALES() d.
FEMALES()
22. Under the ‘Right to
_______’, a consumer has the right to buy the products of his/her choice.
a. BE INFORMED() b. CHOOSE() c. BE HEARD() d. SAFETY()
23. The term ‘ecology’ was
termed by German biologist ________
a. ERNST HACKLE() b. ANGELA MERKEL() c. ERNEST BORGES() d. BORIS
MERKEL()
24. The Universal Declaration
of Human Rights was first adopted in_________. Well before environmental
concerns were raised.
a. 1978() b. 1968 () c.
1958() d.
1948()
25. The ________ states
“whoever is responsible for the damage to the environment should bear the costs
associated with it.”
a. PPP() b. SDG() c.
MDG() d. ECD()
26. _________ describes
movements and philosophies that link feminism with ecology
a. FEMINISM() b. FEM-PHILOSOPHY() c. ECOFEMINISM() d. MOVEMENT PHILOSOPHY()
27. ___________ ecology is the
study of the relationships between political, economic and social factors with
environmental issues and changes.
a. ENVIRONMENTAL() b. SOCIAL() c. ECONOMIC() d.
POLITICAL()
28. The concept of ‘Extended
Producer Responsibility was first described by _________.’
a. THOMAS EDISON() b. ERNST HAVCKLE() c. THOMAS LINDQUIST() d.
STAN ROWE()
29. __________ coined the term
‘Deep Ecology’.
a. PAUL TAYLOR () b.
ARNE NAESS() c. STAN ROWE() d.
JOHN PASSMORE()
30. Population ecology studies
the dynamics of population of a ____________ species.
a. SINGLE() b. HUMAN() c. SEVERAL() d.
ANIMAL()
31. ________ equity refers to
the need for a just distribution of rewards and burdens between generations,
and fair and impartial treatment of future generations.
a. INTRA-GENERATIONAL() b. ECO-GENERATIONAL()
c. INTERGENERATIONAL() d. GENERATIONAL()
32. _________ Principle is
referred to the responsibility of polluter to bear costs associated with the
damage to the environment.
a. POLLUTER COSTS() b.
POLLUTER BANS()
c. POLLUTER GAINS() d.
POLLUTER PAYS()
33. _________ focuses on the biotic community as
a whole and strives to maintain ecosystem compositions and ecological
processes.
a. ECOCENTRISM() b.
ANTHROPOCENTRISM()
c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOFEMINISM()
34. ________ ecology studies
the flows of energy and matter through the biotic and abiotic components of the
ecosystems.
a. SYSTEMS() b. POLITICAL() c. ECOSYSTEM() d.
LANDSCAPE()
35. __________ seeks to shift
the responsibility of costs dealing with waste from government to the
manufacturers producing it.
a. POLLUTER PAYS PRINCIPLE() b. EXTENDED PRODUCER
RESPONSIBILITY()
c. SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
PRINCIPLE() d. WASTE
MANAGEMENT RESPONSIBILITY()
36. ________ argues that the
natural world is a subtle balance of complex inter-relationships in which the
existence of organisms is dependent on the existence of others within
ecosystem.
a. DEEP ECOLOGY() b. ECOFEMINISM() c. ECOCENTRISM() d.
BIOCENTRISM()
37. Community ecology focuses
on the interactions between species with an _________ community.
a. SOCIAL() b.
ECOLOGICAL() c. ECONOMIC() d. ENVIRONMENTAL()
38. __________ refers to
comprehensive science of the relationship of the organism with the environment.
a. BOTANY() b.
ECOLOGY()
c. ENVIRONMENTAL
RELATIONSHIPS() d. ORGANIC
SCIENCE()
39. ___________ equity is
concerned with equity between people of the same generation.
a. INTRAGENERATIONAL() b. GENERATIONAL()
c. INTERGENERATIONAL() d. ECO-GENERATIONAL()
40. The sustainable
development goals are for the period from 2015 to _________.
a. 2020() b. 2030() c.
2025() d.
2050()
41. __________ is a nature
centered approach.
a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()
c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOCENTRISM()
42. ____________ refers to
avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an
ecological balance.
a. MORALITY() b. SUSTAINABILITY() c. ECOLOGY() d. ECO-DEPLETION()
43. __________ grant morals standing
to all living beings.
a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()
c. BIOCENTRISM() d.
ECOCENTRISM()
44. The sustainable
development goals were developed to replace the __________ goals.
a. ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT() b. SUSTAINABILITY()
c. MILLENNIUM DEVELOPMENT () d.
SOCIO-ECONOMIC()
45. WWF stands for World
Wildlife _________.
a. FINANCE() b. FUND() c.
FORMS() d.
NATURE()
46. __________ ecology
examines processes and relationship across multiple ecosystems or very large
geographic areas.
a. GEOGRAPHIC () b.
EVOLUTIONARY() c. LANDSCAPE() d. POPULATION()
47. ___________ refers to
avoidance of the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain an
ecological balance.
a. MORALITY() b. SUSTAINABILITY() c.
ECOLOGY() d. ECO-DEPLETION()
48. The __________ declaration
on environment and development was approved by the United Nations in 1992.
a. KYOTO() b. LONDON() c. DELHI() d.
RIO()
49.____________ is a life
centered approach views animals as important living beings.
a. ANTHROPOCENTRISM() b. ECOFEMINISM()
c. BIOCENTRISM() d. ECOCENTRISM()
50. The ___________ is a
strategy to cope with possible risks where scientific understanding is yet
incomplete, such as the risk of nanotechnology, genetically modified organisms
and systematic insecticides.
a. POLLUTER PAYS PRINCIPLE() b. PRECAUTIONARY
PRINCIPLE()
c. EXTENDED PRODUCER
RESPONSIBILITY() d. SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT PRINCIPLE()
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