TYBAF - SEM VI - MCQ

 

TYBAF - SEM VI MCQ...


MCQ – Multiple Choice Questions

 

SAMPLE MCQ

 

AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI SYLLABUS

 

 

Will be helpful to regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online examinations of SEM II, SEM  IV and SEM V class of students.

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CLASS: T.Y.B.A.F-VI SEM REGULAR

SUB : Financial Accounting

 

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1) At present, Electricity Companies are governed by

a) Electricity Act, 1910

b) Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948

c) Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998

d) Electricity Act, 2003

2) Capital of a co operative societies, 2002

a) share capital

b) ear marked fund

c) corpus fund

d) reserve fund

3) Electricity tariffs are fixed

a) by appropriate commission

b) under Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948

c) under Electricity Act, 1910

d) under Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998

4) Contribution towards the sinking fund

a) 25% of the net profit each year

b) ₹ 36 per member per year

c) 1/4 % of the cost of the flat per annum from each member

d) ₹ 1/- per member

5) Security deposit from electricity consumers

a) may be collected under section 43 of the Electricity Act, 2003

b) may be collected under section 47 of the Electricity Act, 2003

c) is the same everywhere in india

d) cannot be collected

6) Value of share of each member in capital of the society

a) ₹250

b) ₹300

c) ₹1500

d) ₹3000

7) Interest on Security deposit from electricity consumers

a) is not payable

b) is payable at bank rate or more as prescribed

c) is payable only at bank rate

d) may be paid at a rate lower than the bank rate

8) Balance of security deposit from electricity consumers

a) is written off

b) is shown as current liability

c) is shown as non-current liability

d) is shown as current assets

9) The maximum amount of cash allowable to be kept by sugar factories

a) ₹5,000

b) ₹1,000

c) ₹500

d) ₹300

10) Balance of accrued interest on security deposit from electricity consumers

a) is written off

b) is shown as current liability

c) is shown as non-current liability

d) is shown as current assets

11) Tools and Equipment are shown in balance sheet of a co operative society

a) under fixed assets

b) under current assets

c) separately

d) miscellaneous expenditure

12) Deposit for service line contribution cum development change may be accounted for

a) as a liability

b) as a assets

c) as a expanses

d) as a income

13) Bye law no. ________ deals with final Accounts.

a) 147

b) 146

c) 72

d) 43

14) Grand received under APDRP of ministry of Power is accounted for

a) as a liability

b) as a reserve

c) as a capital reserve

d) as reduction in cost of fixed assets

15) Every society deriving profits, shall transfer ________% of the profit to Reserve Fund

a) 10

b) 25

c) 15

d) 5

16) Utilisation of all funds will be with the _____ permission of General Body

a) prior

b) after

c) pre

d) post

17) In case of Electricity Companies, depreciation is changed as per

a) the rates prescribed by the central electricity regulatory commission

b) the rates prescribed by the companies act

c) the rates prescribed by the income tax act

d) the rates prescribed by the comptroller and auditor general of India

18) Maximum amount of cash balance for a society is ₹______

a) 250

b) 300

c) 350

d) 400

19) Non-occupancy charges cannot exceed __________ % of service charges

a) 5

b) 15

c) 10

d) 25

20) In case of Electricity Companies, depreciation is changed as per

a) either straight line method or written down method

b) either straight line method or optimised depreciated replacement cost based method

c) only the straight line method

d) on the optimised depreciated replacement cost based method

21) Under the maharashtra co op. Society act, a society must prepare the profit and loss a/c and balance sheet for an accounting year

a) as per schedule 6

b) in form M

c) in form N

d) in form P

22) Audit charge are recovered from members ar ₹ _______ per member.

a) 36

b) 40

c) 50

d) 100

23) In case of additional capital expenditure by Electricity Companies during the year, depreciation rate should be applied on

a) closing gross block of assets

b) opening gross block of assets

c) average gross block of assets

d) on addition capital expenditure on time basis or pro rata basis

24) _________ fund of the society shall comprises of all entrance fees received by the society from its members.

a) Reserve

b) Capital

c) Revenue

d) Profit and loss

25) ___________ Fund may be used to the society for reconstruction of its building.

a) Capital

b) Revenue

c) Sinking

d) Reserve

26) Formats of financial statements of Electricity Companies are laid down in

a) The central electricity regulatory commission act

b) The companies act

c) The income tax act

d) The Electricity act

27) The Are of operation of the society is confined to the area in which it is _______ .

a) location

b) located

c) debit

d) credit

28) The whole of the day to day management of a co operative society vests in

a) the general body

b) the managing committee

c) the secretary

d) the chairman

29) Amendment of bye laws of the society can be done

a) by the general body by 2/3rd majority

b) by general body by 2/3rd majority subject to approval from register

c) by the general body by simple majority

d) by the general body by 3/4th majority

30) The society shall file annual returns on or before 30th __________ of every year to the registrar.

a) September

b) April

c) June

d) November

31) The value base for depreciation in case of Electricity Companies should be ________ cost of capital

a) capital

b) revenue

c) current

d) investment

32) For charging depreciation in case of Electricity Companies, cost of land should be ______ the cost of assets.

a) excluded from / included in

b) excluded from

c) included from

d) included from / excluded in

33) _________ fund of the society shall comprises of all transfer fees received by the society from its members.

a) Reserve

b) Capital

c) Revenue

d) Profit and loss

34) A member who holds jointly a share of society with others, but whose name does not stand first in share certificate

a) nominal member

b) sympathiser member

c) associate member

d) co member

35) Expulsion of a member can be done

a) by managing committee

b) by the general body by simple majority

c) by general body by 3/4th majority

d) by chairman

36) Depreciation should be charged from the year of _________ production or part of the year on time basis or pro rata basis

a) comercial

b) assets

c) capital

d) cost

37) The maximum amount of cash allowable to be kept by consumer societies

a) ₹5,000

b) ₹1,000

c) ₹500

d) ₹300

38) section ______ of the act states that no part of the funds other than the dividend equalisation or bonus equalisation shall be paid by way to bonus or divided to its members.

a) 65 (1)

b) 65 (2)

c) 64

d) 68

39) Register of audit objection is required to be maintained by a co operative society under

a) section 79(1) of M.S.C.S. act

b) section 38 of the co operative society act read with rule no.32

c) Rule No. 65 of M.S.C.S Rules

d) Rule No. 61 of M.S.C.S Rules

40)  Bye law no. 84

a) Break up of service charges of the society

b) sharing of the society charges by members

c) parking charges

d) interest on delayed payment of charges

41) Contribution towards the sinking fund

a) 1/4% of the cost of the flat per annum from each member

b) maximum 20%

c) maximum 10%

d) 25% of the net profit each year

42) In case of Electricity Companies, after _____ year from the year of commercial production, remaining depreciable value should be depreciated equally over the _______ life.

a) 10, remaining

b) 5, remaining

c) 20, remaining

d) 12, remaining

43) Receipt and payment account is required to be prepared by a co operative society under

a) section 79(1) of M.S.C.S. Act

b) section 38 of the co operative society act read with rule no.32

c) Rule No. 65 of M.S.C.S Rules

d)Rule No. 61 of M.S.C.S Rules

44) For charging depreciation in case of Electricity Companies, cost of leased land should be ______ the cost of assets.

a) excluded from / included in

b) excluded from

c) included from

d) included from / excluded in

45) The depreciation in case of Electricity Companies should be charged in such a way that salvage value of assets remains _____% of cost and _______% of cost is deprecated during the useful life of assets.

a) 10, 90

b) 90, 10

c) 20, 80

d) 25, 75

46) Final Accounts for co operative society

a) Bye law no. 142

b) Bye law no. 145

c) Bye law no. 146

d) Bye law no.147

47) normal recurring repais

a) minimum of 0.75 % per annum of the construction cost of each flat

b) minimum of 0.25 % per annum of the construction cost of each flat

c) minimum of 0.10 % per annum of the construction cost of each flat

d) minimum of 0.20 % per annum of the construction cost of each flat

48)The prescribed form of balance sheet and profit and loss Account (Form N) is dealt with in

a) Rule No. 62 of M.S.C.S Rules

b) Rule No. 32 of M.S.C.S Rules

c) Rule No. 65 of M.S.C.S Rules

d) Rule No. 61 of M.S.C.S Rules

49) section ______ of the act states that every society shall contribute annually towards the education fund.

a) 65 (1)

b) 65 (2)

c) 64

d) 68

50) Interest on the defaulted charges

a) Bye law no. 70

b) Bye law no. 71

c) Bye law no. 72

d) Bye law no. 142


CLASS: SYBFM – VI SEM REGULAR

SUB: INDIAN ECONOMICS – III

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1.    __________ was the chairman of UIDAI.

 

a)    Mr.Nandan Nilankani         b) Mr.Suresh Kirmani          c) Mr.Mahesh Vishwakarma d) Mr. gopinath shinde

 

2.    MGNREGS stands for _________.

a)    Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

b)    Mahatma Gandhi National Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme

c)    Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Equity Guarantee Scheme

d)    Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Session

 

3.    The state of ________ created maximum job opportunities under MGNREGS in 2011-2012.

a)    Madhya Pradesh     b) Rajasthan            c) Telangana            d) delhi

 

4.    __________ is known as then ‘Aadhar Gaon’.

a)    San gaon       b) uri village c) bharatpur village  d) thambali village

 

5.    According to the Planning Commission, ________ of the population was below poverty line in 2011-2012.

a)    21.9%             b) 22.9%        c) 23.9%        d) 24.9%

 

6.    Annapurna Scheme was introduced in ____________.

a)    March 2000   b) April 2000            c) june 2000 d) October 2000

 

7.    The poverty line currently used by the Planning Commission is based upon _________ committee’s report.

a)    Tendulkar     b) Gavaskar  c) Kohli                      d) singh

 

8.    __________ is coefficient used to measure the extent of inequality.

a)    Bini     b) mini                        c) Gini                        d) 4y

 

9.    __________ System of taxation is used to reduce inequality.

a)    Non progressive       b) declining   c) progressive                     d) impressive

 

10. NCAER stands for ________.

a)    National council of apprehensive economic research

b)    National committee of applied economic research

c)    National council of applied economic report

d)   National council of applied economic research

 

11. NSSO estimates inter-state inequality by using ________ ratio.

a)     Lorenz                      b) morenz      c)  Donald     c) moulding

 

12. _______ inclusion can be achieved through Jan Dhan Yojna.

a)    Physical                    b) financial   c) human       d) efficiency

 

13. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is concerned with _________.

a)    CNG connection      b) water connection c) LPG connection             d) Gas supply

 

14. DBTs stands for ________.

a)    Direct benefit transfer

b)    Direct benefit transmission

c)    Direct beneficiary transfer

d)    Deduct benefit transfer

 

15. __________ unemployment is a situation in which the marginal productivity of labour is zero.

a)    Cyclical unemployment                              c)  seasonal unemployment

b)    Disguised unemployment                       d) frictional unemployment

 

16. NABARD stands for __________.

a)    National balance for agriculture and urban development

b)    National bank for agriculture and rural development

c)    National bank for agriculture and rural declining

d)   National bank for agriculture and rural development

 

17. MGNREGP provides employment for a minimum of ________ days in a year.

a)    100     b) 200             c) 300             d)365

 

18. _________ status unemployment refers to chronic unemployment.

a)    Unusual         b) Usual        c) weekly status                    d) monthly    

 

19. The Twelfth Five Year Plan is from __________ to __________.

a)    2012,2017     b) 2013,2018            c) 2014,2015 d) 2010,2003

 

20. The magnitude of unemployment is brought out by __________ survey.

a)    NSSOP                      b) NSSO        c) NASA                    d) NASP

 

21. The organization __________ is concerned with skills development.

a)    National skill development corporation

b)    Food corporation of India

c)    International corporation of world

d)    Organisation of skill development

 

22. The problem of poverty is ……….. problem.

a)    Age –old             b) old age      c) home age d) middle age.

23. India is caught in ………… circle of poverty.

a)    Dangerous          b) vicious     c) round         d) poor

24. According to the Human Development Report 2011, India’s Gini index was ……..% for the period 2010-11.

a)    35.6          b)36.8             c) 37.6                        d) 39.6

25. A lower gini index implies ……….. .

a)    More equal distribution of income

b)    Unequal distribution of income

c)    Higher inequality

d)    Higher equality

26. UID stands for ……….. .

a)    Universal identification

b)   Unique identification

c)    Unique intelligent

d)    Unique information

27. The world’s largest health care program is ………… .

a)    MGNREGP                     b) swatch bharat      c) ayushman bharat          d) Digital india

28. The government introduced the National Rural Employment Guarantee Bill 2004 in the parliament in ……… .

a)    December 2004 b) may 2004  c) june 2004  d) November 2004

29. ‘Make in India’ is concerned with ………

a)    Agricultural sector          b) manufacturing sector  c) service sector   d) quaternary sector

30. Pradhan mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna is related to ……… .

a)    Skill development        b) educational reforms  c) fiscal reforms              d) industrial reforms

31. ………… unemployment refers to joblessness of the people in cities & towns.

a)    Rural        b) remote areas                    c) forest areas           d) urban

32. An expert group was constituted by the planning commission in 1989 to estimate the exact decline in poverty ration which was headed by ……… .

a)    D T Ladkawala  b) P T Ladkawala     c) C T Ladkawala     d)  B T Ladkawala

33. According to professor ……… poverty was accentuated by the liberalisation process in the 1990s

a)    A N Gupta           b) S P Gupta            c) M P Gupta d) C M Gupta

34. ……… programme  was launched in December 2000 to provide good all weather roads to 1.60 lakh unconnected habitations with a population of 500 or more persons in the rural areas.

a)    Pradhan mantri gramodaya yojana

b)    Antyodaya anna yojana

c)    Pradhan mantra gram sadak yojna

d)    Annapurna

35. To protect worker in unorganized sector , ………. Pension yojana was started in 2015.

a)    Gandhi     b) Nehru        c) Indira         d) Atal

36. Poverty alleviation programmes have been implemented by government since ………

a)    1947         b) 1948                      c) 1951                      d)1950

37. ………. Programme to improve the adverse sex ratio and ensure protection, survival and education of the girl child.

a)    Beti bachao beti padhao

b)    Aam admi bima yojna

c)    Rashtriya swasthya bima yojna

d)    Ayushman bharat

38. ……… scheme was launched in 2016 which support to BPL families to get LPG connection.

a)    UID system

b)    Direct benefits transfer

c)    Pradhan mantri ujjwala yojana

d)    Other measures

39. …….. is supposed to the gift of nature.

a)    Computer      b) mobile phones                 c) land                       d) labor

 

40. ………. Scheme provided insurance cover to the head of the family of rural landless households against & natural death as well as disabilities.

a)    Child labor programme          b) make in india     c)  ayushman bharat           d) aam admi bima yojna

 

41. The unorganized workers’ social security act came into effect ………..

a)    May,2008      b) june,2008 c) july,2008   d) October,2008

 

42. Under the ……………. Scheme cooked food served to all children from I to VIII standard in all government and govt. aided schools.

a)    Food corporation of India   b) midday meals     c) Afternoon meals  d) evening snacks

 

43. The underlying commitment of the Ayushman Bharat scheme is …….

a)    Leaving no one behind    b) leaving every one behind          c) working as team   d) working individually

 

44. ………….. unemployment arises due to seasonal factors.

a)    Cyclical unemployment                  b) voluntary unemployment          

c)    seasonal unemployment            d) frictional unemployment

 

45. …………. Unemployment occurs when new methods of production or machines and equipments displace labor.

a) open unemployment b) seasonal unemployment           c) disguised unemployment d) technical unemployment

 

46. ………. Yojna aims at training one crore youth by 2020 in industry related skills .

a)    Swacha bharat abhiyan                              b) pradhan mantra kaushal vikas yojana

c)    pradhan mantra kaushal Kendra            d) skill development

 

47. ………. Initiative was launched in 2014 with goal of making a manufacturing global hub.

a)    Make in india           b) make in china      c) make in Mumbai  d) make in gujurat

 

48. Who is current finance minister of India?

a)    Manmohan singh     b) narendra modi     c) nirmala sitharaman       d) om birla

 

49. The government of India confirmed India’s first case of coronovirus disease 2019 on 30th January 2020 in the state of ………. .

a)    Maharashtra             b) kerala                    c) uttar Pradesh                   d) tamil nadu

 

50. The great Depression was a severe world wide economic depression that took place mostly during……… .

a)    1919-1920                 b) 1920-1921            c)1929-1930             d) 1914-1918

 


   CLASS:T.Y.B.A.F SEM V                                                  

SUB:Financial management

i

MCQ(50 Questions)

 

1.A________valuation is an examination conducted towards rendering an estimate or opinion as to the fair market value of a business interest at a given point of time.

a.Buisness()    b.Market ()      c.Book()   d.Fair()

2.____value is the accounting record value of assets that is shown in the balance sheet.

a.Book()   b.Market()   c,Present()   d.Liquidation()

3.__________value is the value at which an asset or a security of a company can be sold in the market.

a.Book        b.Market()    c.Present      d.Liquidation

4.________value can be applied to tangible assets only because intangible assets cannot be sold generally.

a.Book      b.Market      c.Present  d.Liquidation

5.The________value of all the incremental future cash flows can be termed as the intrinsic value.

. a.Book()     b.Market()     c.Present()    d.Liquidation()

6._______value represents the price at which each individual asset can be sold in the event of liquidation of business.

 a.Book()           b.Market()        c.Present()       d.Liquidation()

7.The maximum price at which a business can be acquired is the ___value.

a.Fair ()          b.Salvage()            c.Replacement()     d.Economic()

8.________value is the cost of purchasing or replacing a new asset which is of equal utility to the business.

a.Fair()        b.Salvage()       c.Replacement()        d.Economic()

9.______value is the average of the market value, book value and the intrinsic value.

a.Fair()  b.Salvage( )  c.Replacement()  d.Economic()

10._________value is generally applied to tangible assets like equipment,plant.

a.Fair()          b.Salvage()          c.Replacement()    d.Economic()

11.Fair value of the shares is equal to______

a.intrinsic value only() b.yield value only() c.Avergae of Intrinsic value and yield value()d.EPS()

12.Under Net Asset value method value of shares are depends on_

a.Net Asset available to equity shareholders()

b.Net asset available to Debenture holders()

c.Net Asset available to Preference shareholders()

d.Non current asset()

13._______refers to the mutual consolidation of two or more entities to form a new enterprise with new name.

a.Merger()     b.Acquisition()      c.Takeover()       d.reconstruction()

14.In a ______multiple companies of similar size agree to integrade their operations into a single entity, in which there is shared ownership, control and profit.

 a.Merger ()          b.Acquisition()   c.Takeover()       d.reconstruction()

15.The Purchase of the business of an enterprise by another enterprise is known as________

a.Merger()     b Acquisition()        c.Takeover()       d.synergies()

16.In_______the firm which acquires another firm is Known as Acquiring  company while the company which is being acquired as known as Target company.

a.Merger()   b.Acquisition()  c.Takeover()         d.synergies()

17.An_______is the purchase of by one company (the acquirer) of a substantial part of the assets or the securities of another(target company)

a.Merger      b.Acquisition()  c.Takeover     d.synergies

 

18._______mergers refer to two firms operating in same industry or producing ideal products combining together.

a.Horizontal()     b.Vertical()       c.Conglomerate()  d,Concentric()

19.The main objectives of __mergers are to benefit form economies of scale reduce competition, achieve monopoly status and control the market.

a.Horizontal()      b.Vertical()      c.Conglomerate()    d,Concentric()

20._____merger refers to the combination of two firms operating in industries unrelated to each other.

a.Horizontal()    b.Vertical()  c.Conglomerate()  d,Concentric()

21.The main objective of a _________merger is to achieve a big size.

a.Horizontal()  b.Vertical()    c.Conglomerate()  d,Concentric()

22.A watch manufacturer acquiring a cement manufacturer is an example of merger_________

. a.Horizontal()   b.Vertical()  c.Conglomerate()  d,Concentric()

23._______merger refers to combination of two or more fims which are related to each other in terms of customer  groups,functions or technology.

. a.Horizontal()  b.Vertical()  c.Conglomerate()  d,Concentric()

24.Combination of a computer system manufacturer with a UPS Manufacturer is an example of_______merger.

. a.Horizontal()   b.Vertical()    c.Conglomerate()  d,Concentric()            

25.The _________as well as non trading assets should also be reduced in total assets.

a.Goodwill b.cash  c.Debtors d.Creditors

26.Under____method, shares are valued on the basis of expected dividend and  normal rate of return.

a.Dividend yield b.Net asset method c. yield d.earning profit

27.Under______method shares are valued on the basis expected  earnings and normal rate of return.

a.Dividend yeid b.Earning yield c.Net Asset d.Future

28.The expected rate of return in investment is denoted by____

. a.Dividend yield b.Net asset method c. yield d.earning profit

29.NPV=_________-Premium

a.Value creation()  b.Acceleration()   c.Synergies()     d.Speculation()

30.An acquisition is the same  thing as_

a Spin-off()   b.a merger()   c.an amalgamation()  d.turnover.()

31.Balance of capital reduction should be transfer to______

a.Securtiy premium()  b.Capital reserve() c.share capital() d.profit and Loss()

32.A new company is formed under_______

a.Absorption()  b.Reconstruction ()c.Amalgamation() d.Internal()

33.Amalgamation is formed under______

a.As-14 b.As-3 c.As-21 d.AS-32.

34.All of the following  are common motives for a merger or acquisition except for.

a.Operating synergy() b.financial synergy() c.raising the cost of capital()

dBuying undervalued assets()

35.Vertical mergers are those in which the participants are

a.in the same industry()                        b.in different industries()

c.in different phases of the value chain()     d.other form()

36.Earnings based company valuations do not include the

a.P/E method ()              b.DCF method ()

c.ABC method()             d.APR method()

37.Which of the following are commonly cited reasons for M & As?

a.Synergy ()                                     b.Market power()

c.Strategic realignment()              d.all the above()

38.Asset based company valuations do not include the

a.Marginal cost method()             b.book value method()

c.realisable method()                      d.replacement cost method()

 

39.Other reasons for company valuations do not include

a.tax evasion()                     b.inheritance tax assessment()

 c.security for loans()         d.Capital gains tax assessment()

40.Justifications for M & As do not relate to:

a.emoluments ()           b.job security()

c.power()                       d.dividends()

41.Financial motives for M & As do not  relate to

a.earning per share()             b.corporation tax()

 c.value added tax()              d.unemploymed tax shields()

42.Managerials motives M & As do not relate to

a.emoluments ()             b.job security()  

c.power()                          d.dividends()

43.The three broad approaches to company valuation do not include

a.future earnings valuation()    b.inventory valuation()

c.stock market valuation()           d.asset valuation()

44.The good reaons for M &As do not include

a.supporting value-added growth()   b.increasing earning per share()

c.complementing business  strategies()  d.stopping acompetitor merging or taking over()

45.synergies that reduce costs through the economies of scale in various divisons of the company, research and development ,procurement ,sales and marketing,manufacturing, distribution and general administration is called______

a.Cost()        b.revenue()    c.Reserve()     d.Subsidiary()

46.A___merger in a small industry will definitely help in increasing the market share.

a.Horizontal()        b.Vertical()      c.Reverse()  d.Subsidiary()

47.A car manufacturer acquires a steel company is an example of __________merger.

a.Horizontal()    b.Vertical()      c.Conglomerate()    d.Concentric()

48.In_______merger ,the buyer merges into the target and the shareholders of the buyer get stock in the target.

a.Horizontal()       b.Vertical()     c.Reverese()  d.Concentric()

49.________is where a larger company acquires another company and uses its greater resources to accelerate market access for the smaller company’s products.

a.value creation()   b.Acceleration()    c.Synergies()       d.specualtion()

50.The ways in which mergers and Acquisitons (M& As) occur do not include:

a.Vertical integration ()                 b.Conglomerate  takeover()

 c.Vertical integration ()                 d.Horizontal integration()

 

 

 CLASS: T.Y.B.A.F-VI SEM REGULAR

SUB : COST ACCOUNTING

 

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1.    Which of the following is / are true with regard to the period of budget ?

(i)The  budget period depends on the nature of industry

(ii)Master budget is prepared annually, while functional budgets may be for different periods

(iii)Basic budget is the long term budget Only.

(i) above(i)  only (ii) above(ii)   c. Both (i) and (ii) above()     d. All (i) (ii) and (iii) above()

 

2. The classification of fixed and variable cost has a special significance in the preparation of

a. Flexible budget()                   b. Cash budget()               c. Capital budget()

d. Zero-based budget()

 

3. When a flexible budget is used, then decrease in the actual production level whit in a

relevant range would

a. Decrease variable cost per unit()             b. Decrease variable costs()

c. Increase total fix costs()                              d. Increase variable costs per unit()

 

4. If the activity level is reduced from 80% to 70% the fixed cost

a. will decrease by 10%()             b. will increase by 10%()              c. per unit will decrease()

d. per unit will increase()

 

5. Which of the information below should be contained in a budget manual?

a. An organisation  chart()              b. Timetable for budget preparation()

c. A list of account codes()              d. All (a), (b) and (c)()

 

6. A master budget comprises

a. The budgeted profit and loss account()

b. Budgeted cash flow, budgeted profit and loss, budgeted balance sheet()

c. Budgeted cash flow()                              d. Entire sets of budgets prepared()

 

7. Which of the following is normally the most appropriate sequence of events in the

preparation  of the indicated budgets?

a.    Sales budgets, cash budgets, budgeted balance sheet, production budget()

b.    Sales budgets, cash budgets, production budgets, budgeted balance sheet()

c.    Sales budgets, production budget, cash budgets, budgeted balance sheet()

d.    Sales budgets, production budgets, budgeted balance sheet, cash budgets()

e.     

8. Which one of the following items would NOT be included in a cash budget?

a. Capital repayments on loans()       b. Depreciation charges()

c. Dividend payments()

                           d. Proceeds of sales of fixed assets

9. Which of the following items should be included in a cash budget?

(i) loan repayments                (ii) depreciation charge               (iii) tax provision

(iv) wages paid

a.    (i) and (ii)()           b. (i) and (iv)()             c. (ii) and (iii)()            d. (iii) and (iv)()

 

10. A company is preparing a production budget for the next year. The following information is relevant

Budgeted sales 10000 units

Opening stock 600 units

Closing stock 5% of budgeted sales

The production process is such that 10% of the units produced are rejected

What is the number of units required to be produced to meet demand ?

a. 8900 units()               b. 9900 units()              c. 10900 units()               d. 11000 units()

 

11. A company has the following budgets for the next month:

Finished product                                           Materials

Sales – 7000 units                                  Usage per units – 3kg

Production units – 7200 units             Opening stock – 400kg

Closing stock – 500kg

What is the material purchase budgets for the month ?

a.    20,900 kg ()                 b. 21,100 kg()              c. 21,500 kg()               d. 21,700 kg()

 

12. ABC LTD. Uses the following flexible budget formula for annual maintenance cost:

Total cost = Rs. 6,720 + Rs. 0.64 per machine hour

The current month’s budget is based on 20000 hours of planned machine time.

The maintenance cost included in this flexible budget for the current month is

a.    Rs. 12,240()               b. Rs. 12,800()               c. Rs. 13,360()                d. Rs. 13,600()

 

13. ABC LTD has furnished the following information for 4,000 units of a product for the

year 2014-2015

Particulars                                                                                                Rs.

Direct materials                                                                                 2,50,000

Direct labour                                                                                      2,00,000

Manufacturing overheads                                                               2,80,000         (40% fixed)

Selling and administrative overheads                                            2,70,000        (30% fixed)

The total cost of 4,380 units is

a.RS. 10,95,000()               b.Rs.10,42,500()                 c.Rs.10,80,120()

d.RS. 10,76,665()

 

14. The budgeted cost of electricity is Rs. 62,500 for 5,000 units of production per month and

Rs.71500 for 6200 unit of production per month. If company manufactures 6900 units

in the month May 2014 the budgeted amount of electricity for the month is .

a.Rs.74360()         b.Rs.76750()           c.Rs.77770()            d.Rs.79572()

 

15.__________budgeted is calculated from the desired ending inventory in and the sales forecast.

a.production()          b.master()            c.fixed()              d.principle()

 

16.________ is a financial and /quantitative statement prepared and approved prior to a

Defined period of time of the policy to be pursued during that period for the purpose of

Attending a given objective.

a.budget()     b.function()           c.flexible()         d.center()

 

17.CIMA has defined a ___________ Budget as the summary budget incorporating its

Component functional budgets.

a.Master()            b.productio()                d.functional()              d.fixed()

 

18.CIMA has defined a_________Budget as a budget which is designed to remain

unchanged   irrespective of the level of capacity or volume.

a.fixed()             b.master()             c.functional()              d.key()

 

19.CIMA has defined a Budget_________as a section of the organisation of an undertaking

Defined for the purpose of budgetary control.

a.center()           b.fixed()          c.production()           d.master()

 

20.CIMA has defined budget________as a document sets out the responsibilities of the

Person engaged in, the routine of and the form and record required for ,budgetary control.

a.manual()         b.key()        c.production()             d.functional()

 

21.CIMA has defined a_________factor as a factor which at any time or over a period many

limit the activity of an entity often one where there is shortage or difficult of supply.

a.center()        b.manual()          c.key()         d.fixed()

 

22.Sales budget_____________

a.functional budget()     b.current budget()       c.master budget()     d.key factor

 

23.Budget which is established for use unaltered over a long period of time _________

a.basic budget()       b.budget center()    c.principle budget()    d.fixed budget

 

24.a factor which at any time or over a period may limit the activity of an entityoften one

where there is shortage or difficult of supply.

a.budget center()     b.key factor     c.manual budget()     master budget()

 

25. a section of the organisation of an undertakingDefined for the purpose of budgetary control.

a.budget center()      b.master budget()        c.fixed budget        d.sales budget()

 

26.What should be the profit per week if the selling price of the product was set at Rs.31 per unit?

a.Rs 2800           b.3150     c.5490       d.5800

 

27. A company manufactures and sells two products( X and Y)both of which utilise the same skilled labour. For the coming period, the supply of skilled labour is limited to 2,000 hours. Data relating to each product are as follows :

Product                                                                  X                                                     Y

Selling price per unit                                       Rs20                                                 Rs40

Variable cost per unit                                     Rs12                                                  Rs30

Skilled labour hours per unit                             2                                                         4

Maximum demand (unit) per period              800                                                    400

In order to maximise profit in the coming period, how many units of each product should the company manufacture and sell ?

a. 200 units of X and400 unit of Y         b.400 unit of X and 300 unit of Y

c.  600 unit of X and 200 unit of Y           d.800 unit of X and 100 unit of Y

 

28. A company manufactures and sells a single product. The variable cost of the product is Rs2.50 per unit and all production each month is sold at a price of Rs3.70 per unit. A potential new customer has offered to buy 6,000 units per month at a price of Rs2.95 per unit. The company has sufficient spare capacity to produce this quantity. If the new business is accepted sales to existing customers  are expected to fall by two units for every 15 units sold to the new customer. What would be the overall increase in monthly profit which would result from accepting the new business ?

a.Rs1,740                         b.Rs2,220        c.Rs2,340      d.Rs2,700

 

29.A company manufactures four components (L,M,N and P) using the same general purpose machinery .Weekly demand is 1,500 units of each component but only 24,000 machine hours are available. Each week . A decision has to be made on which component to buy in from an outside supplier. The following data are available :

L                 M                  N

Variable production cost (Rs per unit)                          45               40                30

General purpose machinery hours per unit                  3                   5                  4

Purchase price from outside supplier (Rs per unit)      57                55               54

In order to minimise total cost , which component should be purchased from the outside supplier each week ?

a.component L              b.component M            c.component N                 d.component P

 

30.A company manufactures two products (L and M) using the same material and labour it holds no stocks. Information about the  variable costs and maximum demands are as follow

Product L                        Product M

Rs/unit                           Rs/unit

Material (Rs 4 per litre)                              13                                       19

Labour (Rs 7 per hour)                                35                                       28

Units                                      Units

Maximum monthly demand                                6,000                                      6,000

Each month 50,000 litres of material and 60,000 labour hours are available

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(a)  Material is a limiting factor but labour is not a limiting factor

(b)  Material is not a limiting factor but labour is a limiting factor

(c)  Neither material nor labour is a limiting factor

(d)  Both material and labour are limiting factors

 

40.A company would sell 40,000 units of a product if the unit selling price was sat at Rs 10 and these would generate a total contribution of Rs 1,60,000. If the unit selling price was reduced to RS 9.50 then sales of 44,000 units would result.

Setting unit selling prices of Rs 10.50 and Rs 11 would result in sales of 36,000 and

31,000 units respectively.

Which selling price would generate the highest total contribution?

a.Rs.9.50()           b.Rs.10             c.Rs.10.50           d.Rs.11.00

 

41.Contribution =sales - __________ cost.

a.fixed cost()      b.variable cost()     s.emivariable cost    d.sunck cost

 

42.__________Cost is the value of the alternative forgone by adopting a particular strategy or

Employing resources in specific manner.

a.Opportunity()   b.impute()      c. sunk()      d.controllable

 

43.__________Cost in the hypothetical or notional cost not involving any cash payment computed

Required to be made by the management at present.

a.avoidable()       b.differential ()          c.imputed()    d.sunk()

 

44.________cost wich can not be influenced by the concerned cost centre.

a.controllable()         b.sunk()     c.differential()    opportunity()

 

45._______ Cost are in escapable cost which are essentially to be incurred within the limit of norms

Provided for.

a.unavoidable()         b.avoidable()        c.sunk()      d.imputed()

 

46.__________ cost is the change in cost due to change in activity from one level to another.

a.Differential ()     b.fixed()                c.variable()       d.sunk()

 

47.value of the alternative foregone by adopting a particular strategy or employing resources

In specific_______________ manner.

a.opportunity cost()     b.fixed cost       c.variable cost()      d.semivariable cost()

 

48.Change in cost due to change in activity for one level to another level.

Semivariable cost()     b.differential cost()       c.variable cost()      d.sunk cost()

 

49.ICMA stand for ____________

a. institute of cost and management accountants()

b.institute of cost and management audit()

c. institute of code of management accountants()

d.industry of cost of management accountants()


50.ICWAI stand for______________

a.institute of cost and works accountants of India()

b.institue of cost and works accountants of industry()

c.institute of cost and words accountants of India()

d.instute of cost and works account of India()



CLASS: T.Y.B.A.F-VI SEM REGULAR

SUB : Indirect Tax

 

MCQ (50 QUESTIONS)

 

1.   Article __________of the constitution give power to Parliament of India to enact laws

for         the India.

a.      260()                             b.390()                         c.245()            d.250()

 

2.________ Customs Act .

a.1962()        b.1975()                                c.1935()                         d.1960()

 

3.Indian Exclusive economic zone an area up to ________ nautical miles in to sea from

base line.

a.12()                               b.24()                                   c.100()                           d.200()

 

4.Custome duty is on __________.

a. services()  b. goods()              c. goods and services() d. none of the above()

 

5.Customs tariff act____________.

a.1935()                       b.1962()                  c.1975()                                   d.1938()

 

6.Territorial water_________.

a.12 nautical miles()   b.24nm()                    c.176nm()                         d.200nm()

 

7._______is the last stage in imposition of tax.

A.rebate()               b. Assessment()              c. Collection()                   d. Levy()

 

8.Goods which are chargeable to duty on which duty has not been paid are knows

as _______goods.

a.Imported()            b. exported()            c. interport()                    d. all()

 

9.The term “goods” includes_________.

a. Vessel, Vehicle & aircraft()            b. Baggage()

c. Currency & negotiable instruments()            d. All of the above()

 

10._________Chargeing section in Customs

a.12 nautical miles from Indian base line()         b.176()         c.200()          d.24()

 

11.Vessel, Vehicle or aircraft used for transport of passenger or goods is knows as _________

for the purpose of customs.

a. Goods carrier()     b. passenger transport()             c. conveyance()           d. all of the above()

 

12.U/s 2(3), Baggage includes unaccompanied baggage but done not include __________

a. Motor vehicle()           b. aircraft()              c. roadway()           d. all of the above()

 

13.For the purpose of Customs law, any vessel engaged in finishing or any other

operations outside the territorial waters of Indian shall be regarded as ___________vessel.

a. fishing()           b. foreign-going()              c. Passenger()              d. any of the above()

 

14. For the purpose of extraction of mineral oil and gas “India” shall extend up to _____nautical miles from base line of India.

a. 12()                      b. 24()           c.200()             d.400()

 

15. Import and Export by government is deal __________section

a. sec.12(2)()                 b.sec.12(5)()          c. sec12(3)()              d. sec12(8)()

 

16. India deal _________in sec

a. u/s 2(27)()                 b.u/s2(65)()           c. u/s(73)()                 d.u/s2(83)()

 

17. __________charging section of custom

a. 11()                  b.13()             c. 12()           d.14()

 

18. __________In-land bonded where housing at

a. 1878()            b. 1875()             c.1889()             d. 1896

 

19. ___________section give the power to arrest.

a. u/s 104()             b. u/s 108()              c. u/s 103()           d. u/s 102()

 

20. Custom tariff at divide___________ schedule

a. 2()            b.5()            c.3()            d.4()

 

21. Contiguous zone extends to ___________ nautical miles from base line of India

a. 24()             b. 27()              c.23()            d. 25()

 

22. Coastal goods mean goods other than _________ goods transported in a vessel from one port in India to another

a. imported()                b. exported()                 c. all of the above              d.none of the above

 

23. ___________ Contiguous zone

a. 24 nautical miles from Indian base line()             b. 12 nm()              c. 36nm()         d. 150nm

 

24. One nautical mile means ___________miter

a. 1.85()            b. 2.78()            c. 1.79()             d. 1.89()

 

25. Custom duty is _________ tax

a. indirect()              b. direct()                c. all()               d. none of theme

 

26.  TDS stand for ___________

a. Total deducted at source()            b. Tax deducted at source()              c. Tax Deduction at source()            d. Total deduction at source()

 

27. TDS @ ________ is to be deducted by the deductor from the payment made or credited to the deductee.

a. 1%()           b. 5%()          c. 7%()          d. 3%()

 

28.  TDS shall __________ deducted where supplier and place of supply are in different states.

a. be()                b. not be()            c. all()             d. none them()

 

29. Refund is payable if the amount exceeds

a. Rs. 0()             b. Rs.1000()             c. Rs. 10000()          d. All of the above()

 

30. The_________ needs to compulsorily get registered under GST

a. E-commerce operator()               b. Supplier supplying goods or services through an operator

c. both (a) and (b)                              d. none of the above

 

31. Every registered person required to deduct tax at source shall furnish a return in from ___________

a. GSTR- 1()           b. GSTR- 5               c. GSTR- 9         d. GSTR- 7

 

32. The deductor shall furnish the TDS certificate is From___________

a. GSTR-7A()            b. GSTR-4A()             c. GSTR- 6A()              d. GSTR-3A()

 

33.The Electronic cash ledger shall be maintained in from_________

a. GST PMT-01()              b. GST PMT -02()                    c. GST PMT_04 ()             d. GST PMT-05()

 

34. Every register person required to deduct tax at source shall furnish a return in form _______

a. GSTR-1() b.GSTR-2() c.GSTR-3()    c.GSTR-4()

 

35.The option to appoint any person in the taxable territory in absence of representative

and /or physical presence of E-commerce operator, is allowed in respect of supply of _______

a.Goods ()              b.Services()              d.both A and B()          d.None of the above()

 

36. The amount of tax collected is to be paid to the government within ________days after the

end of the month in which tax is collected.

a.5()                          b.7()                        c.10()                           d.15()

 

37.Every operator who collect the amount of tax has to furnish the details of the same within______

After the end of the month.

a.15 days()                  b.1month()                        c.20days()              d.10days()

 

38.An operator can rectify any omission or incorrect particular in furnishing the statement u/s52(4)

Subject to payment of ______________

a.Taxes()                   b.Intrest()                        c.Penalty()                    d.Late fee

 

39.In above case , if annual statement is failed in July ,2018the answer will be ___________

a.August,2018()          b.September ,2017()            c.September,2018()         d.July,2018()

 

40.In case an operator fails to furnish the information required by the notice served to him U/s52(2)

Within 15 days of date of service ,he will be liable to pay penalty of maximum_________

a.Rs.5000()                    b.Rs.10000()                c.Rs.25000()          Rs.20000()

 

41. Person required to collect tax at source has to submit ____________ in From GST REG-07

a. Application for grant of registration()

b. Application for cancellation of registration()

c. Application for amendment of registration()

d. details of tax collected()

 

42. Details furnished by operator are made available to suppliers in their From___________

a. GSTR 4A()            b. GSTR 8A()             c. GSTR 2A()            d. GSTR 4()

 

43. The amount available in the Electronic credit ledger can be utilized for payment of __________

a. Output tax()            b. penalty()             c. cess()          d.  All of the above()

 

44. Input Tax credit of SGST can be utilized towards payment of_________

a. SGST and CGST()             b. SGST and IGST()           c. SGST and UTGST()           d. SGST only()

 

45. Input tax credit of ___________ cannot be utilized towards payment of CGST

a. SGST()            b. UTGST()             c. IGST()                d. both (a) and (b)()

 

46. The balance is _________ may be refunded

a. Electronic cash ledger()       b. Electronic credit ledger()       c. both (a) or (b)()      d. none of the above

 

47. Interest @ _________ is payable on delayed payment of taxes

a. 18%()              b. 15%()               c. 28%()            d. 24%()

 

48. Payment of every liability registered person shall be made by debiting__________

a. Electronic credit ledger()              b. Electronic cash ledger()            c. Electronic ledger register()                      d. both (a) and (b)

 

49. Over the counter payment through authorized  banks is restricted to ___________per challan per tax period

a. Rs. 10000()              b. Rs. 20000()            c. Rs. 0()             d. Rs. 50000()

 

50. CPIN is a ____________ digit unique number

a. 15()              b. 14()             c. 10()           d. 27()

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 



 

 

 

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