TYBBI - SEM VI - MCQ
Multiple
Choice Questions
SAMPLE MCQ FOR EXAMS ONLINE...
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI
SYLLABUS
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CLASS: TY BBI
SUB : Turnaround Management
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. It is
through business…………..Fresh Ideas and innovation are given a shape and are
transformed into useful products and services.
a. Goals
b. Plans
c. Policy
d. Strategies
2. Strategies
are very Much useful in organizations for ……….
a. Guiding
b. Planning
c. Control
d. All of
these
3. It is
a organisation………….. which binds managers together and Bring proper Adjustment
and Coordination in their work.
a. Structure
b. Plan
c. Policy
d. Practice
4. The
…………….Functions carried out research, Organizes advertising and product
promotion
a. Sales
b. Marketing
c. Production
d. Finance
5. The
process of bringing about a revival in the firm fortunes is what is termed as
…………..
a. Turnaround
management
b. Strategic
Management
c. HR
Management
d. Innovation
6. Building
of dams is an activity done under ……………. Industry.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Filed
7. In
PESTLE , P stands for ……….
a. Primary
b. Political
c. Privatization
d. Police
8. …………occur
when one function previously carried over by a supplier or a distributor is
being taken over by the company in order to reduced costs, to maintain quality
of Input and to gain control over scared Resources.
a. Vertical
Growth
b. Horizontal
growth
c. Parallel
growth
d. Independent
growth
9. Which
are the following are vertical growth
…………?
a. Forward Integration
b. Merger
c. Acquision
d. Take
over
10. Which
are the following is type Horizontal growth
a. Backward
integration
b. Forward
integration
c. Merger
d. Independent
growth
11. A ………concern
will be an innovator and can easily face the risk of competition.
a. Growing
b. disappearing
c. Falling
d. Fading
12. This
strategy aims at increasing the sales of present product in the presented
market through aggressive promotion
a. Market
penetration
b. Market
development
c. Product
development
d. Sales
development
13. ……….implies
increasing sales by selling present product in the new market .
a. Market
penetration
b. Market
development
c. Product
development
d. Sales
development
14. When a
firm diversify into business which is not related to its existing business both
in terms of marketing and technology it is called …………….
a. Concentric
diversification
b. Conglomerate
diversification
c. Integration
d. Take
over
15. …………………
involves up gradation of technology to increased production to improve quality
and reduce wastages and cost of production
a. Diversification
b. Modernisation
c. Vertical
integration
d. Expansion
16. Industrial
sickness contribute to ……….cost economy
a. High
b. Medium
c. Average
d. Low
17. ……………amongst
the following is an internal cause of industrial sickness
a. Recession
b. Ineffective
sales promotion
c. Changes
in customers demand
d. Changes
in government policies
18. An
industrial unit is considerate sick when
its financial position is
a. Good
b. Satisfactory
c. Not
satisfactory
d. Very good
19. Manufacturing
unit having an investment of Rs. 25lakhs to Rs. 5 crore in plant and machinery
is………… enterprises
a. Medium
b. Small
c. Micro
d. Large
20. In
April 1997, the name if industrial reconstruction bank of India (IRBI) has been
change to ……
a. IIBI
b. SIDF
c. IDBI
d. ICICI
21. Under
modernisation fund , the government of India provides financial assistance
under textile and ……. Modernisation Fund.
a. Jute
b. Cotton
c. Sugarcane
d. bricks
22. BIFR
Stands for
a. bureau
for industrial and financial reconstruction
b. board
for industrial and financial recovery
c. bureau
for industrial and financial recovery
d. Board
for Industrial and Financial reconstruction
23. in 1986, government
helped in formation of small industries development fund (SIDF) under ………
a.
IIBI
b.
SIDF
C. IDBI
D. ICICI
24. After the accounts are finalised,
Board of Directors of the sick industrial company must make reference to BIFR
with in ………..days after Finalization of Accounts.
a. 60
b. 90
c.120
d. 150
25. the entire responsibility for
diagnosing, identifying, investigating, rehabilitating, reviving and ultimately
recommending the winding of such a sick unit lies with the ….
a.
RBI
b.
SEBI
C. BIFR
D. ROC
26. The main Objective of ……………is to
determine sickness and expedited the revival of potentially viable units or
closer of unviable units.
a. SICA
b. BIFR
c. CERA
d. SEBI
27. …………….Establishes an elaborate Regime
to Deal with Sick Industrial Units.
a. SICA
b. BIFR
c. CERA
d. SEBI
28. Board for Industrial and financial
reconstruction (BIFR) was Functional With Effect from 15th May…………
a. 1977
b. 1987
c. 1997
d. 2007
29. Which of the following are symptoms of failure?
a. Falling sales and falling profitability.
b. Poor management and leadership.
c. Neglecting the core business
d. Failure to compete.
30. Which of the following are symptoms of failure?
a. Poor financial management and control.
b. Failure to compete.
c. Declining market share and a high turnover of
managers.
d. Poor management
31. Which of the following are causes of failure?
a. Falling ROCE and falling EPS.
b.Increasing debt
and a delay in publishing financial results.
c.Poor
financial management.
d.Reduced dividend
and decreasing liquidity.
32. Retrenchment strategies include which of the following
a. Re-focusing of products and markets.
b.Rationalising the
product portfolio.
c.Emphasis on
advertising and selling.
d.Organisational change.
33. Turnaround strategies include which of the following
a. Price changes.
b. Debt
restructuring.
C. Asset reduction
and divestment.
d. Cost reductions in the value chain
34. Which of the following can be used to describe
retrenchment strategies?
a. Product development.
b. Operational.
c. Corporate.
d. Marketing.
35. Which of the following can be used to describe
turnaround strategies?
a. Operational.
b. Financial.
c. Asset reduction.
d. Competitive.
36. Organisational changes include which of the following?
a. Reorganisation and redefinition of job roles.
b. Reducing assets
and divestment.
c. Reducing value
chain costs.
d. Changes in cash
flow, cost of production and expenses
37. SBU stands for……..
a. strategic business unit
b. simple business unit
c. same business unit
d. sample business unit
38. when two or more firm mutually decided to establish a
new enterprise by participating in equity capital and business operation, it I
know as ………
a. Take over
b. Merger
c. Joint venture
d. acquisition
39. …………sickness is the sickness since inception of the
organisation.
a. healthy unit
b. long unit
c. short unit
d. Born
40. BIFR has been replace by ………..
a. NCLT
b. SIDBI
c. RBI
d. MICA
41. ______ is important for business to nurture in all the
directions over a period of time
a) Customer service
b) Growth
c) Profit
d) Quality
42. Which of the following is not an economic activity?
a. A Doctor practicing
b. A Lawyer practicing law
c. A professional cricketer playing cricket
d. A student playing cricket
43. A major symptom of sickness is
a steady fall in ________ and an imbalance in the financial position of the
unit.
a. Debt Equity Ratio
b. Equity Ratio
c. Current account
d. Liabilities
44. Market obsolescence is one of the prime reasons for
units turning into ______.
a. Sick
b. Profitable
c. Both
d. organization
45. ………. is an act of reorganizing a company, a business a
system or a process in a new way to make it more productive and effective
a. Down sizing
b. Restructuring
c. Turnaround
d. Acquisition
46. when the company expand business in same market it is
called…………
a. Horizontal growth
b. Vertical growth
c. downward growth
d. no growth
47. Given below is NOT growth Strategy.
a. diversification
b. modernisation
c. TQM
d. Merger and acquisition
48. it implies increasing sales by selling present product
in the new market.
a. market penetration
b. expansion
c. growth
d. Market development
49. it involves moving to words the input of the present
product.
a. backward integration
b. forward integration
c. Joint venture
d. merger
50. Manufacturing unit having an investment of Rs. 5 crore to 10 crore in plant and machinery is………… enterprises
a. Micro
b. small
c. medium
d. large
51. SICA established on ………… by the Rajiv gandhi government.
a. 1990
b. 1987
c.1999
d. 2000
SUB : SAPAM
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. An
Investment is an _____ or item that is purchased with the hope that it will
generate income or will appreciate in the future.
a) Asset b) Liabilities c) Bad debts
d) Credit
2. From
below given options which is not an objective of an investment?
a) Safety b) Growth
c) Income d) Loss
3. Investing
in different types of securities helps to minimize _____.
a) Risk b) Profit c) Interest
d) Yield
4. _____
refers to the expected rate of return from an investment.
a) Risk b) Bad debts
c) Credit d) Return
5. _____
refers to the loss of principal amount of an investment.
a) Risk b) Bad debts c) Credit
d) Return
6. _____
refers to invest money in financial physical assets and marketable assets.
a) Investment b) Credit rating c) Returns
d) Risk
7. In the
case of ownership instrument like equity or preference shares, the _____ is
more due to their unsecured nature and variability of their return and
ownership character.
a) Tax b) Dividend
c) Risk d) Credit
8. _____
refers to the protection of investor principal amount and expected rate of
return.
a) Tax b) Risk
c) Safety d) Return
9. _____
refers to an investment ready to convert into cash position.
a) Liquidity b) Real estate c) Debenture
d) Capital
10. _____
refers to buying and selling of securities in market.
a) Liquidity b) Marketability c) Credibility d) Market
11. _____
refers to appreciation of investment.
a) Capital
growth b)
Conceal ability c) Marketability d) Liquidity
12. _____
refers to the buying capacity of investment in market.
a) Conceal
ability b) Liquidity c) Purchasing power stability d) Capital growth
13. _____
refers to constant return from an investment.
a) Conceal
ability b) Liquidity c) Marketability d) Stability of income
14. P.F,
LIC Scheme, Pension Scheme, Post office certificates and deposits are?
a) Financial
assets b)
Physical assets c) Marketable
assets d) Goods
15. Land,
Gold, other metals and Consumer durables are?
a) Financial
assets b) Physical assets c) Marketable assets d) Goods
16. Shares,
Bonds, Mutual fund schemes, Government securities are?
a) Financial
assets b) Physical assets c) Marketable assets d) Goods
17. _____
investments represents ownership in a running company.
a) Equity
shares b)
Debenture c) Commercial paper d) Gold
18. _____
are long term investment options with a fixed stream of cash flows depending on
the quoted rate of interest.
a) Mutual
funds b) Debenture c) Equity shares d) Gold
19. A
_____ is a professionally-managed investment scheme, usually run by an AMC that
brings together a group of people and invest their money in stocks, bonds and
other securities.
a) Bank deposit b) Silver
c) Mutual funds d) Bills
of exchange
20. In
India investing in _____ is considered as the best form of investment but only
after gold.
a) Real
estate b)
Silver c) Bank deposits d) Bonds
21. _____
refers to the unsecured deposits invited by companies from the public mainly to
finance working capital needs.
a) Bank
deposits b) Debenture c) Post office savings d) Public deposits
22. The
maximum deduction which can be claimed under Section 80C is _____.
a) 1,50,000 b) 1,75,000
c) 1,25,000 d) 2,20,000
23. _____
is a retirement benefit scheme and is available only to salaried employees.
a) PPF b) ULIP
c) EPF d) Corporate
deposits
24. _____
are fixed income earning instruments issued by the Govt. of India.
a) NSC b) PPF c) EPF
d) Bonds
25. A good
_____ on an investment is the first and the foremost condition for effective
investment.
a) Risk b) Rate of return c) Safety
d) Growth
26. _____
means ease of investment.
a) Marketability b) Growth
c) Safety d) Convenience
27. _____
refers to buying and selling of securities in market.
a) Marketability b) Liquidity c) Purchasing power stability d) Growth
28. _____
refers to the buying capacity of investment in market.
a) Marketability b) Liquidity
c) Purchasing power stability d)
Convenience
29. _____
is an act of conducting a risky financial transaction, in the hope of
substantial profit.
a) Marketability b) Gambling c) Speculation d) Investment
30. The
purchase of an asset with the hope of getting returns is called _____.
a) Marketability b) Gambling c) Speculation d) Investment
31. _____
means a combination of financial assets and physical assets.
a) Portfolio b) Mutual funds c) Hybrid instrument d) Marketing
32. Which
of the following is a financial investment?
a) Purchase
of shares b) Purchase of farm
house c) Purchase of a car d) Purchase of TV set
33. Which
of the following is tax saving investment?
a) Fixed
deposit b) Shares c) PPF
d) Post office savings
34. All
personal investing is done to achieve certain _____.
a) Objectives b) Investments c) Risks
d) Returns
35. Life
insurance business was nationalized in India in _____.
a) 1956 b) 1980 c) 1990
d) 2000
36. The
fundamental analysis approach has been associated with _____.
a) Uncertainties b) Certainties c) Ratios
d) Balance sheet
37. The
object of a portfolio is to reduce _____ by diversification.
a) Return b) Risk
c) Uncertainty d) Percentage
38. Financial
markets can be classified into Money markets and _____ markets.
a) Securities b) Primary
c) Secondary d) Capital
39. _____
risk is avoidable through proper diversification.
a) Portfolio b) Systematic
c) Unsystematic d) Total
40. An
aggressive common stock would have a beta.
a) Equal to zero
b) Greater than one c)
Equal to one d) less than one
41. Beta
is the slope of:
a) The
security market line b) The capital
market line c) A characteristic line d) The CAPM
42. The
possibility of reduction of risk through the construction of portfolio depends
on the value of _____ between the two assets.
a) Correlation
coefficient b) Time
c) Difference d) Market
43. A
price weighted index is an arithmetic mean of _____.
a) Future
prices b) Current prices c) Quarter prices d) Face value
44. Which
measures the systematic or non-systematic risk of a security?
a) Beta b) Variance c) Standard deviation d) Range
45. The
beta of the risk free asset is _____.
a) -1.0 b) 2.0
c) 1.0 d) 0
46. The
market portfolio has a beta of _____.
a) -1.0 b) 2.0
c) 1.0 d) 0.5
47. Modern
portfolio theory _____ the relationship between risk and return.
a) Maximizes b) Minimizes
c) Quantifies d) Does not
assume
48. A
statistical measure of the degree to which two variables move together:
a) Coefficient
of variation b) Variance c) Covariance d) Certainly equivalent
49. Which
one of the following is not money market instrument?
a) Certificate
of deposit b) A treasury bill c) A treasury bond d) Commercial paper
50. Passive
management is also referred to as _____.
a) Index
fund management b)
Index folio management c) Interest free
management d) Dividend management
CLASS:
T.Y.BBI-VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : Auditing
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1) _________ would mean record maintained by
the company to record the specified financial transaction.
a) maintenance of books of accounts
b) record of books of accounts
c) regular of books of accounts
d) decision of books of accounts
2) First Auditor of a company shall be
appointed by the _________.
a) general manager
b) CEO
c) board of directors
d) comptroller
3) Direct contractual relationship between
Auditor and shareholders is called as _______.
a) pricy of contract
b) pricey of contract
c) pirvy of contract
d) privy of contract
4) ________ is breach of trust or duty imposed
by law.
a) misfortune
b) misfeed
c) misfeasance
d) Misconduct
5) Auditor is liable for _______ in prospectus.
a) misstatements
b) midst
c) misstate
d) miles
6) The book of Account must be kept on _______
basis.
a) accrued
b) access
c) accrual
d) Account
7) An Auditor who is an individual can be
appointed for one term of maximum __________ consecutive years.
a) 5
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
8) misfeasance is a ______ liability in the
companies act, 1956.
a) civil
b) contact
c) contract
d) crime
9) Fraud and deception is ___________ liability
in the companies act.
a) crime
b) criminal
c) loss
d) stipulated
10) Auditor is liable only if there is a
_______ to the party.
a) loss
b) profit
c) gain
d) expanses
11) Auditor is not liable if he _______ his
consent to prospectus in writing within stipulated period.
a) withdraw
b) deposit
c) banker
d) income
12) __________ is the most important objective
of auditing.
a) quality
b) certificate
c) reporting
d) qualified
13) In case of government company, Auditor is
appointed by __________ .
a) general body
b) companies act
c) statutory act
d) comptroller and auditor general of India
14) It is the duty of the auditor to report to
the ________.
a) members/ shareholders of the company
b) bord of directors
c) CEO
d) managing director
15) Audit report is the instrument through
which the auditor expresses his __________ to the shareholders.
a) opinion
b) supposed
c) required
d) good
16) Audit certificate refers to _______ of
certain facts.
a) claim
b) condition
c) confirmation
d) confidential
17) Qualified report is given when auditor is
not satisfied with major matter in _________ statement.
a) financial
b) Management
c) cost
d) quality
18) If auditor give qualified report he has to
give reason for _________.
a) clear
b) clean
c) qualifications
d) advice
19) Statutory Reserve should be created at ____
% of current years net profit.
a) 0.5
b) 0.3
c) 0.25
d) 0.05
20) Books of accounts of the company shall be
kept at the _______ office of the company.
a) registration
b) registered
c) repayment
d) division
21) A firm including __________ who are
chartered accountants shall be authorised to act as Auditor.
a) partnership firm
b) companies
c) joint stock company
d) limited liability partnership
22) Unqualified report is also known as _____
report.
a) clear
b) clean
c) operation
d) copy
23) Bills for collection are shown in the
balance sheet of a bank under ________.
a) other asset
b) other liability
c) contingent liabilities
d) loans
24) Format of LFAR is designed by _________.
a) RBI
b) ICAI
c) IRDA
d) ICMAI
25) Money lent for one day is called as Money
at ______.
a) short notice
b) call
c) intraday
d) par
26) ____% provision is required in case of loss
assets.
a) 100
b) 50
c) 0.4
d) 25
27) The financial statements of the company
shall be laid by the _______ before the shareholders at the annual general
meeting.
a) Board of directors
b) officers
c) CEO
d) employees
28) LFAR is mandatory for __________.
a) limited company
b) insurance company
c) banking company
d) non profit organization
29) For audit of advance, bank prepare ______
a) appraisal form
b) valuation report
c) invoice
d) receipts
30) No dividend to be declared if company fails
to comply with provision related to acceptance and _________ of deposits.
a) written off
b) divisible
c) accrual
d) repayment
31) An Auditor can audit maximum ________
companies.
a) 20
b) 10
c) 25
d) 15
32) Discount on bills is shown by bank under
______.
a) interest earned
b) interest expended
c) advances
d) other income
33) Money lent for more than one day but for
less than 14 days is called as Money at ______.
a) short notice
b) call
c) intraday
d) premium
34) Auditor of SBI is appointed by_______.
a) shareholders
b) central government
c) comptroller and auditor general
d) board of directors
35) Auditor should obtain _______ Management
representations to complement the audit procedures
a) written
b) planning
c) obtained
d) discuss
36) Form A of third schedule give format of _______
of the bank.
a) balance sheet
b) profit and loss
c) loan schedule
d) cash flow statement
37) Auditor of the subsidiaries of SBI is
appointed by_______.
a) shareholders
b) central government
c) board of directors
d) State Bank of India
38) Auditor of regional rural bank is appointed
by_______.
a) shareholders
b) central government
c) bank with approval of central government
d) SBI
39) Consolidated financial statements are
mandatory under Companies act ________.
a) 1949
b) 1957
c) 2015
d) 2013
40) ______ is the amount of profit available
for distribution of dividend.
a) net profit before tax
b) depreciation
c) division profit
d) net profit after tax
41) Auditor has a right to receive notice of
________.
a) statutory meeting
b) bord meeting
c) Annual general meeting
d) Companies meeting
42) The report which expresses that financial
statements are as per GAAP is ________.
a) qualified
b) unqualified
c) modified
d) adverse
43) Section _______ governs divisible profit.
a) 132
b) 123
c) 321
d) 231
44) The audit working papers are the property
of _______.
a) shareholders
b) aditor
c) manager
d) employee
45) Company cannot pay _______ without
providing full depreciation.
a) dividend
b) interest
c) tax
d) non operating expenses
46) Payment of dividend create cash _________.
a) outfow
b) inflow
c) cash imbalance
d) cash stability
47) In case of default in payment of dividend
the company has to pay simple interest of _______.
a) 18%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 20%
48) Dividend can be paid out of _______.
a) central Reserve
b) general reserve
c) CRR
d) capital fund
49) remuneration of auditor of a schedule Bank
is fixed by _____.
a) shareholders
b) central government
c) board of directors
d) SBI
50) ____________ representations serve as an evidence
to the auditor.
a) Management
b) Organizational
c) strategic
d) Financial
CLASS:
TYBBI- SEM 6 REGULAR
SUB : HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1.
Human recourse
management is concerned with the ______________ dimension in management.
a) Financial b) marketing c) people d) potentiality
2.
HRM is dynamic and
_____________ approach.
a)
Casual b) proper
c) multidisciplinary d)
cultural
3.
Rapid globalisation
requires __________
a) Organisation
flexibility b)
research c) discipline
d) accuracy
4.
Attrition Rate is on
the rise with around _________ of the people leaving their job every year
a)
20 -25% b) 35-40% c) 10-15%
d) 60-70%
5.
Economic,
technological and social trends have created ________ problems for business and
industry
a)
Simple b)
acute c) superficial d)
artificial
6.
____________ can be
developed through effective training and development programmes
a)
Knowledge b)
employee potentialities c) employee
d) employee discipline
7.
The
______________function begins with human resource planning
a)
Coalition b)
acquisition c) rectification d)
specification
8.
In today’s
organization to guarantee their viability and ability to contribute, HR managers need to think of
themselves as ____________
a)
Strategic partners b) henchmen
c) responsible members d) leaders
9.
The organisation with
well defined performance ________ is an organisation with high potential for
success
a)
Metrics b) team plan c)
coach d) specification
10. HRM involves various of ____________ sciences
a)
Social b) Physical c) cultural
d) psychological
11. Acquiring and ____________good people is critical to
the success of every organisation
a)
Training b) selecting c)
Developing d) maintaining
12. The HRM
department plays an important role in helping the business to ________ for the
failure
a)
Coordinate
b) control c) Plan
d) direct
13. Strategic HRM
focuses on human resourse programmes
with ________ term objective
a)
Long b) medium c)
large d) short
14. Job analysis
is the __________ point of whole process of recruitment & selection
a)
Starting b) ending c) middle
d) ever
15. ____________ assists the management in selecting a
match for the job.
a)
Job specification b) Job evaluation c)
Relative worth d) Personal Characterises
16. The premise of strategic HRM is that the company’s
policies and procedure related to
employees should fit unto the organization’s ___________ strategic plan.
a)
Narrower b)
broader c) steeper
d) none of these
17. Strategic HRM also helps to foster a sense of team
____ and camaraderie within the organization
a)
Spirit b) game
c) break d)
none of these
18. Talent represents the _________ capital of an
organization and is crucial to the success of that business
a)
Financial b)
human c) Work d)
none of these
19. The most successful businesses in the world always
take pride in themselves in hiring the _____ talent in the world.
a)
Best b) cheapest
c) costliest d)
simplest
20. The _______ of the organization is important to an
organization just as to what the head is to a body.
a)
Bottom b)
supervisor c) leadership d)
link
21. Job analysis involves a _____ investigation of jobs
using a variety of methods
a)
Systematic b) continuous
c) random d) rigid
22. It is a statement of ____ human qualities necessary
to perform the job.
a)
Rigid b)
straight c) acceptable d)
flexible
23. _______ refers to the possession of information ,
facts and techniques of a particular job
a)
Skills
b) knowledge c) experience d) task
24. Job specifications is also known as man or ______
specifications.
a)
Employee b) Work
c) skills d) Task
25. Number and the type of ______ are determined by the
jobs which need to be staffed.
a)
Personnel b)
data c) work d) loading
26. Recruitment needs to be preceded by ______
a)
Job description b)
job analysis c) job specification d) job rotation
27. Clearly _______ must be based on the relative worth
of each job.
a)
Skills b)
knowledge c) Remuneration d)
training
28. A perception of inequity is a sure way of
___________ an employee.
a)
Demotivating b) Encouraging
c) Selecting d)
Improving
29. ________ qualities are not job specific but are of
universal nature
a)
Behavioural b) Leadership
c) Judgement d) physical
30. Job-related information is, therefore, necessary for
_____
a)
HRP b) Recruitment
c) Selection d)
controlling
31. Perhaps the simplest method of job evaluation is the
_____ method.
a)
Ranking b) Planning c)
step d) merit
32. Points are assigned to each factor after _______
each factor in the order of importance.
a)
Reducing b) Prioritizing c) Unorganized d)
Flexible
33. Jobs design
refers to the way that a set of task, or an entire job, is __________
a)
Organized b) Semi
organized c) Unorganized
d) Flexible
34. Job design involves _______ areas
a)
Selling b)
Finance c) Administrative d)
legal
35. ____________ is a permanent group of employees who
together are responsible for the total process where products or service are
made and delivered to internal or external clients
a)
Self management team b) Group Management c) Company Management d) Team management
36. Job simplification results in workers experiencing
__________
a)
Freedom b)
Boredom c) exhaustion
d) autonomy
37. ____________ employees also have control over
performance feedback that guides their work.
a)
Empowered b)
Trained c) skilled
d) Semi skilled
38. Jobs themselves are not actually changed only the
employees are _____among various jobs
a)
Changed b) replaced c)
Rotated d) shifted
39. _____________ leaders like to use the term empowerment
to describe how employees are given more antinomy over the work processes.
a)
Political b) corporate c) regional d) cultural
40. Empowered employees are given ______
a)
Autonomy b) Autocracy c) monarchy d)
patriarchy
41. A self managing team provided for __________
motivation by giving people autonomy.
a)
Extrinsic b) intrinsic c)
spiritual d) external
42. Empowerment
refers to a feeling of control and
_________ that emerge when people are given power in a previously powerless
situation.
a)
Self sufficiency b)
self efficiency c) self control
d) self worth
43. Job enlargement is also called _________ job loading
a)
Horizontal b)
vertical c) expanding
d) integral
44. _________ refer to proficiency required to use the
knowledge to perform the job
a)
Job rotation b)
works practices c) skills
d) experience
45. A properly designed job will make it more ________
& satisfying .
a)
Productive b) quality c)
complex d) good
46. Empowered employees also have control over ________
feedback that guides their work.
a)
Performance b) regular
c) conflicts d)
negotiation
47. Strategic HRM
is seen as a ___________ in organizational success.
a)
Partner b) peer c)
influencer d) coach
48. Organisations need to manage human resources on a
_______ basis.
a)
Continuous b) flexible
c) rigid d) fixed
49. It is through ________ that a business success or
fails in its endeavours
a)
Recruitment b)
leadership c) selection d) training
50. _________ assists the candidates to understand the
requirements of the job which one to be fulfilled by him.
a)
Job description b) relative waste c)
skills d) Job specification
Class
TYBBI Semester ll Regular
Subject: Central Banking
MCQ
(50 Questions)
1.RBI
was nationalized in the year…..
(a) 1949
(b) 1935 (c) 1934 (d) 1936
2.The
RBI is established in the year……
(a)1934 (b) 1935 (c) 1949 (d) 1950
3.Growth
with is one of the important objectives of monetary policy of the RBI
(a) Price feasibility
(b) price stabilitty
(c)price liability (d) price
4.Forecasting
or fixing rate of inflation is called
(a)
Deflation targeting
(b) inflation targeting
(c) Liberalization (d)Globalization 5.
……….considered as an alternative to CB
(a)Currency
board (b) national board (c)both
6.Central
bank is that bank which controls……
(a)Credit
(b)assets
(c)
gold (d) money
7.The
inflation target at present for India is…..
(a) 5%
(b) 4% (c) 3%
8.Monetary
policy in India is formulated by…..
(a)
fiscal Policy Committee
(b) monetary policy committee
(c)
narsimha committee
(d) Government
9.
.………… banks worldwide have monopoly of note issue.
(a)
central bank (b) State Bank
(c) local bank (d) private bank
10.RBI's
monetary policy has two sub serve the ……..economic
and social objectives
(a) national (b)local bank (c) state
11.The
autonomy of a central bank is limited by…………
(a) Government intervention (b)government
restrictions
(c) government
security
(d) Government policy
12
Transparency improves………. of CB
(a) accountability
(b) creditibility (b) liability (d) Transaction
(b) 13……..
Is the Apex Bank of the banking sector of an economy
(a) BOI
(b) SBI
(b) (c)RBI
(c) (d) Union bank
(d) 14.In
the ……….. many central banks followed the policy of money
supply targeting.
(a) 1970s
(b) 1980s
(c) 1980s(d) 1990s
15. The
exchange rate mechanism followed by India at present is
(a) Fixed exchange rate
(b) flexible exchange rate (c)Managed
float system
(d) none
of these
16.When
exchange rate is pegged do another currency it is called
(a) Exchange rate of targeting (b)
inflation targeting (c) exchange rate
17 Top officials of the banking sector in India are appointed by
the
(a) Government
(b)president (c) none of these
18.The
major weakness faced by central banks in emerging economics are………
(a) Weak financial system (b) financing government debts(c)
both a&b (d) none of above
19.
Indian rupee is fully convertible in the …….
(a) Current account (b) capital account(c)
Both a& b (d) none of the two
20.BIS
stands for
(a) bank for internal settlement
(b)Bank for international settlement
(c) bank for international standard (d) none of
these
21. IMF stands for
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) international money fund
(c)
international monopoly
22. Fixed
exchange rate was operational under the
gold standard till………
(a) 1935 (b) 1936 (c) 1931 (d) 1938
23.Financial
sector liberalisations with more capital enabled the economies to register
(a) higher growth rate (b) lower growth rate (d) normal growth rate
24.CRR
stands for
(a) cash reserve ratio (b)
cash rate ratio (c) credit reserve ratio (d) none of these.
25. As a
………..RBI regulates the flow of foreign exchange to the various sectors and
needs according to priority.
(a) Banker (b) government (c) Custodian
(d) none or these
26. All…………
banks maintain an account with the central bank.
(a) Commercial
bank (b) State Bank (c) local bank
27.In
the case of the USA employment generation price stability and interest rate
stability are considered as…….
(a) primary
objectives (b) secondary objectives (c) none of these
28. The
fluctuations in the exchange rate cause for reaching effects on the
(a) economy (b) market (c) target (d) money
29.Central bank have been in existence since
the …..
(a)1960s (b)1950s
(c) 1940s(d)1980s
30 Economist …………….. defines a central bank is a lender of the
last resort
(a)Paul Samuelsson
(b) R.C Hawtrey
(c) Adam Smith (d)Dekock
31Who considers central bank as a bankers bank
(a)R.C.Hawtrey
(b) Paul Samuelsson
(c)Dekock (d) Adam Smith
32Central banks are known by different names in
different countries in USA it is called as the
(a)Federal
Reserve System
(b) Reserve Bank of USA
(c) Federal Bank
(d) Reserve Bank
33.Bank of England is said to be the oldest one
established in
(a) 1694
(b) 1695(c) 1690(d) 1691
34.Accepts receipts and makes payments on behalf of the
government
(a)
Central bank (b) private bank
(c)
state bank of india (d) BOI
35.WTO stands for
(a) Wealth
Trade Organization
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) World transaction organization (d) wealth transaction organazation
36.Full form of CRR
(a)Credit
reserve ratio
(b)Cash
reserve ratio
(c) cash
repurchase ratio
(d) Cash
ratio reserve
37.Full
form of GATT
(a)General authority on trade and tariffs
(b)
general agreement on trade and tariffs
(c) General agreement on trust tariff
(d)General
authority on trust and tariff
38 ……..Is
used to measure inflation. (a) Quantity index
(b) number index (c) price index
(d)Number ratio
39 All continuous or sustained rise in the
general price label or a fall in the value of money
. (a) Depression(b) Recovery
(c) inflation
(d) Targeting
40.Full
form of LPG
(a)Liberalization
privatization and globalization
(b)Liberalization
policy Granted
(c) iLiquidity price globalization
(d)Liberalization price guarantee
41. Due to the floor capital between countries has
increased substanially
(a) Globalization (d) Inflation (b)Quantity
index(c) inflation(d)Price index
42.The
flexible exchange rate system where the in the central bank intervenes is
called the
(a)Financial
system (b) currency system (c) managed float system (d)Economic system
43 In
the recent time the concept of ………. is being discussed as an alternative to the
central bank.
(a)Fixed exchange rate system
(b) curreny board
(c) centralized agency (d) currency
notes
44.Who
circulate all mint and ₹1.00 note in India?
(a)Ministry
of Finance (b) RBI
(c) Ministry of external affairs
(d) state government
45Who
has the right of note issue (a)Central bank (b) commercial bank (c) Government
(d) corporative bank
46
Which one is the Bank of the public
(a)Commercial bank (b)
central bank (c) Reserve Bank of India
47 The
economy from under development the government had to follow ……….
(a) High
level policy(b) liberal fiscal policy (c) monetary policy (d) system
policy
48The
policy of the government related to public revenue public expenditure and
public debts
(a)Monetary
policy (b) money policy (c) fiscal policy (d) bank policy
49 Full
form of IMF
(a) International
money fund(b)International Monetary Fund (c) India Monetary Fund (d)
India money fund
50 Full
form of FDI
. (a) Foreign direct investment(b)
foreign development investment (c) finance development investment (d)Financial
direction in India
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