TYBFM - SEM VI - MCQ
MCQ ----------
Multiple
Choice Questions
SAMPLE MCQ
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI
SYLLABUS
Will be helpful to
regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online
examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V
class of students.
If it is helpful to you
so also share it among your friends so that they will be also benefited from
it.
ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD
CLASS:
T.Y.BFM-VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : ORGANISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1
According to Marvin Shaw “ A ____ is two or more persons which interact
with another such that each person influences and is
influenced by other person”.
1
Member 2 Team 3 Group 4 Organization
2 Membership of prestigious group increases the
______ of people .
1 Self
- Confidance 2 Status 3 Power
4 Self-esteem
3
______ group is a group that are consciously created by the organisation to
achieve its goal .
1 Formal
2 Command 3 Normal
4 Informal
4 A
______ group is a group composed of individuals who report directly to a given
manager .
1
Task 2 Informal 3 Command 4
Normal
5
______ groups consist of individuals who comes together because they share one
or more common characteristics .
1
Interest 2 Friendship 3 Task 4 Common
6
_________ group provides their members with social satisfaction and sence of
security and belongingness .
1 Formal
2 Informal 3 Social 4 Normal
7 In
Five Stage Model of group , in ________ stage group members work effectively
and efficiently towards achieving the group objectives.
1
Forming 2 Stroming 3 Norming
4 Performing
8 In
_________ stage of Five-Stage Model ______ stage prepare for disbanding .
1
Norming 2 Forming 3 Adjourning 4 forming
9
______ leaders are appointed and assign
position in organisation by Top management
1
Informal 2 Formal 3 Normal 4 Top level
10
According to Robbins and Judge in 2009 A ______
is define as “a set of expected behaviour patterns attributes to someone
occupying a given position in a social settings “.
1
performance 2 Role 3 Norms
4 Perseption
11 _____
describes what kind of behaviour of members are acceptable or
unacceptable to the group.
1 Role 2 Norms
3 Appearance 4 Performance
12 _________ is the prestige , position , or
rank given to group or group members by others .
1 Power
2 Cohesiveness 3 Status 4 Appraisal
13 __________
is the tendency of of a group member to adjust one’s behaviour with the
norms of the group .
1
Status 2 Conformity 3 Appearance
4 Loafing
14 _____ refers to reduction in motivation and
efforts when individual work collectively in a group compared to when they work
individually or as independent co- actor.
1
Cohesiveness 2 Norms 3 Social
Loafing 4 Social facilitation
15 ________ is defined as ‘ a deterioration of
mental efficiency , reality testing and moral judgment that results from
in-group pressures “.
1 Groupchat 2 Groupthink 3 Efficiency 4
Polarisation
16
Both risky and cautious shift are part of a general phenomenon _______.
1 Polarisation 2 general shift 3
Cohesiveness 4 Escalation
___________
17
In __________ performance usually depends on both
individual as well as collective work.
1 Team 2
Group 3 Management 4 leadership
18 In ______ performance usually depends on work
of individual members.
1
Team 2 Group 3 Organisation 4 Office
19
According to Robins and judge In _______
team “ Employee from about the
same hierarchical level but from different work areas come together accomplish
a task “.
1
Virtual 2 Cross-functional 3 Self
Managed 4 Problem solving
20
_________ team are “ teams that use computer technology to tie together
physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal “
1
Self-Managed 2 problem solving 3 Virtual 4 skill managed
21
Team usually have greater ______ than groups.
1 freedom
2 cooperation 3 autonomy 4 skill
22 A
team should not have more people than required , the ideal number is _____
1 20
to 30 2 10 to 12 3 40 to 50 4 100 to 200
23 A virtual team is __________ dispersed tem.
1
Mentally 2 logically 3 systematically 4 geographically
24
_______ refers to the additional energy in team .
1 Synergy 2 Energy
3 power 4 faith
25
______ are the members of both formal and informal group .
1 Employee 2 Men 3 Women 4 Management
______
26
________ can be a constructive or destructive.
1
Opinion 2 Emotions 3 Stress
4 Freedom
27
Stress become _________ in nature when the level of stress becomes excessive.
1 constructive 2 destructive
3 optimal 4 above performance
28______ is the level of stress that the person can
tolerate before negative feelings about stress occurs and has adverse effect on
performance .
1 Stress threshold 2 Perceived control 3 Vulnerability 4 Resilience
29
Individual who are more prone to stress are often described as __________
personality.
1 Type A 2 Type B
3 Type C 4 type D
30
______ affects one’s body , mind and behaviour
1
Sadness 2 Stress 3 strength 4 weakness
____________
1
31 ________ is concerned with the study of what people do
in an organisation and how that behaviour affects the performance of the
organisation .
1
Structure 2 Process 3 Organizational
Behaviour 4 Perception
32
______ study of people in relation to their social environment or culture .
1
Anthropology 2 Sociology 3
Psychology 4 Physiology
33
_______ is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their
activities .
1
Sociology 2 Psychology 3 Anthropology
4 Social psychology
34 __________ is the unique way in which each
person sees, organizes and interprets things.
1 Perception
2 Ideology 3 Organizational
behaviour 4 Motivation
35
According to Newstrom and Davis , ______ provides a super ordinate goal that
combines the efforts of individual and groups.
1
Perception 2 Motivation 3 Mutual
Interest 4 Ethics
36 _______ model focuses on satisfying the
social and psychological needs of the employee to make them more productive.
1 Autocratic
Model 2 Supportive Model 3 Custodial Model 4 Collegial Model
37
______ model focuses on teamwork for the realization of organizational goal,
partnership is at the heart of this model .
1 Collegial model 2 Autocratic model 3 Custodial model 4 Supportive model
-----------2
SUB : MUTUAL FUND MANAGEMENT
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1. A
_____ is a type of financial intermediary that pools the funds of investors who
seek the same general investment objective and invest them in a number of
different types of financial claims.
a) Mutual
fund b) Share c) Debenture
d) Bond
2. The
purpose of the Investment varies according to the _____ chosen.
a) Bank b) Asset class c) Markets d) Schemes
3. _____
is used for capital protection.
a) Debt b) Gold c) Share
d) Silver
4. _____
is used as hedge against inflation and for liquidity.
a) Debt b) Share
c) Silver d) Gold
5. _____
is not a pass through type of financial intermediary.
a) NBFC b) AMC
c) Commercial bank d) IRDA
6. Mutual
fund _____ are the funds shareholders.
a) Unit
holders b)
Creditors c) Debtors d) Financer
7. _____
investing offers certain advantages over direct investing.
a) Debenture b) Gold
c) Mutual fund d) Share
8. The
money pooled in the mutual funds is managed by _____ who decide the investment
strategies on behalf of the unit holders.
a) Broker b) Professionals c) Creditor d) Shareholders
9. The
total risk of the portfolio comprises of _____ risk and unsystematic risk.
a) Systematic b) Time c) Event
d) Inflation
10. There
are more than _____ mutual fund schemes with wide variety of Investment
objectives and options available to Investors in India.
a) 500 b) 350
c) 700 d) 400
11. _____
refers to the speed at which an asset can be converted into cash without much
loss of its economic value.
a) Credibility b) Liquidity c) Credit rating d) Return on asset
12. _____
withdrawal plan enables withdrawal of different amounts of money for different
month.
a) SIP b) Flexi
c) SWP d) STP
13. Mutual
funds are subject to strict regulation and oversight by _____.
a) RBI b) NABARD
c)IMF d) SEBI
14. In
India, _____ received by investor is tax free.
a) Interest b) Dividend c) Capital
appreciation d) Coupon
15. The
investor needs not to pay taxes for all equity purchases after _____.
a) March
1, 2003 b) March 5,
2011 c) April 1, 2003 d) March 4, 2005
16. All
mutual funds are registered with _____.
a) RBI b) World bank
c) SEBI d) Stock exchange
17. _____
is the plan under which investor withdraws fixed amount of money periodically.
a) SWP b) STP c) SIP
d) FWP
18. _____
is a variation of SWP.
a) Flexi b) STP
c) SIP d) FWP
19. A
_____ is organized either as a company or business trust.
a) Debenture b) Share
c) Mutual fund d) Bond
20. The
_____ or trustees of a mutual fund, as in the case of other types of companies,
have onerous responsibility for the management of Fund’s business affairs.
a) Unit
holders b) Directors c) Broker
d) Subscriber
21. Mutual
fund _____ have certain voting rights.
a) Debenture
holder b) Bond holder c) Investors
d) Shareholders
22. The
_____ is responsible for selecting portfolio investment in accordance with the
objectives and policies set forth in Fund’s prospectus.
a) Investment
advisor b) Broker c) RBI
d) SEBI
23. Fund
_____ maintain records of shareholder accounts, which reflect daily investor
purchases, redemptions, and account balances.
a) Fund
manager b) Broker c) Investment advisor d) Transfer agents
24. The
mutual fund industry in the _____ is highly regulated one. Four principal
securities law governs mutual fund.
a) India b) US
c) UK d) Japan
25. In
_____ there are unit trust and investment trust.
a) India b) US
c) UK d) Japan
26. A unit
trust is authorized and regulated by the _____.
a) FSA b) RBI c) SEBI
d) IMF
27. The
_____ prohibits the limiting or extinguishing obligations and liabilities of
the trustees.
a) RBI b) The Indian Trusts Act, 1882 c) SEBI
d) FSA
28. Who
appoints the trustees?
a) Fund
sponsor b)
Investor c) SEBI d) RBI
29. An
_____ or any of its officers or employees is not eligible to act as a trustee
of any mutual funds.
a) Fund
sponsor b) AMC c) Broker
d) Investors
30. No
custodian in which the sponsor or its associates hold _____ or more of the
voting rights of the share capital of the custodian.
a) 51% b) 45%
c) 49% d) 50%
31. From
below given options select the company that provides custodian services to the
mutual funds:
a) PMC
bank b) HDFC bank c) Central bank d) IDBI bank
32. _____
maintains record of the unit holder’s account.
a) Fund
manager b) Broker c) Transfer agent d) R&TA
33. The
_____ and transfer agent forms the most vital interface between the unit
holders and mutual fund.
a) Registrar b) Custodian c) Sponsor
d) Unit holder
34. SWP
Stands for?
a) Systematic
Whining Pain b) Systematic Whining
Plan c) Systematic Withdrawal Plan d) Systematic Weight Plan
35. SEBI
stands for?
a) Securities
& exchange board institute b) Securities
and exchanges board of India c)
Securities and exchange board of India
d) Securities and exchanges board of institute
36. Money
market refers to that part of the debt market where the maturity is?
a) Less
than 1 year b) Less
than 1 month c) Less than 6 months d) More than 1 year
37. Which
of the following is not a reason for investing in mutual funds?
a) Small
amount of funds needed b) Portfolio
manager expertise c) Specific investment
goals d) Overly diversified
38. Advantages
of investing in mutual fund include all of the following except?
a) Diversification
of your investment b) Professional
management c) Meeting specific
investment goals d) There is
virtually no risk of loss
39. The
_____ is the market value of the securities that a mutual fund has purchased
minus any liabilities.
a) Book
value b) Net asset value c) Gross asset value d) Net worth value
40. Which
of the following is not a true statement of mutual fund?
a) All
require a minimum investment b) All
have the same investment goals c)
The calculation of net asset value is the same
d) All have a management expense ratio
41. Which
of the following expenses is usually highest for mutual funds?
a) Management
fees b) Administrative fees c) Referral fees d) 12b-1
42. Private
sector mutual funds were permitted in the year _____.
a) 1993 b)
1994 c) 1996 d) 1998
43. The
budget of 1999-2000 made _____ tax free.
a) Interest b) Coupon
c) Gold d) Dividend
44. Mutual
fund investor cannot control _____ fund.
a) Value b) Units
c) Costs d) Tax
45. Mutual
funds can invest only in _____.
a) Gold b) Marketable c) Promissory notes d) Bank deposit
46. The
sponsor is the _____ of the mutual fund.
a) Promoter b) Officer c) Owner
d) Investor
47. The
money market mutual funds are regulated by _____.
a) RBI b) IRDA
c) SEBI d) IMF
48. The
minimum number of members on the board of trustees is _____.
a) 6 b)10
c) 4 d) 8
49. At
least _____ of trustees have to be Independent.
a) 2/3 b) 1/4 c) 1/2 d) 1/5
50. The
trustees rights and obligation are spelt out in _____.
a) Prospectus b) Trust deed c) File
d) Contract
CLASS: T.Y.B.F.M -VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : RISK MANAGEMENT
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1) Risk is defined as __________ of actual
return from an investment with respect to expected returns
a) volatility
b) volatile
c) gain
d) return
2) There are certain industry which follows a
certain _________ .
a) character
b) capacity
c) collateral
d) cycle
3) The main concern of _______ to fulfill the
tax liability.
a) government
b) owner
c) community
d) investors
4) A stock is considered to be _______ if
actual return exceed expected returns.
a) overvalued
b) undervalued
c) fixed value
d) variable value
5) _________ risk that the value of a portfolio
( either trading or investment) will decrease due to the change in value of the
market risk factors.
a) market
b) commercial
c) country
d) reputation
6) Return broadly comprises of _________ main
parts.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
7) Higher is Market value of __________ lower
will be credit risk.
a) collateral
b) capital
c) attached
d) loss
8) _________ is the risk that arise from stock
price volatility.
a) equity risk
b) debt risk
c) country risk
d) term risk
9) ___________ is the risk that arise from
volatility of interest rates in economy.
a) interest rate risk
b) equity risk
c) market risk
d) liquid risk
10) ___________ rating is one of the most
widely used techniques to determine the creditworthiness.
a) credit
b) minimal
c) moderate
d) average
11) ________ risk arises if there is maturity
mismatch between liability and offsetting assets.
a) liquid
b) term structure
c) political
d) country
12) __________ implies a situation where the
future events are not yet known.
a) certainty
b) dynamic
c) uncertainty
d) function
13) Lack of counterparty results into _______
risk.
a) market
b) commercial
c) political
d) liquidity
14) _________ have wide commercial applications
which make it attractive for investors.
a) silver
b) gold
c) gold ETF
d) metals
15) Risk ________ desired level of risk that
the Organization believe is ideal to meet its objectives.
a) target
b) capacity
c) attitude
d) tolerance
16) ___________ are units representing physical
gold, which may be in paper or dematerialized form.
a) silver
b) gold
c) gold ETF
d) metals
17) __________ expect quality service and
adequate care services.
a) employees
b) customer
c) supplier
d) community
18) _________ it has become possible for
investors to invest in gold without owning them in physical form.
a) tool for hedging
b) high liquidity
c) exchange traded
d) correlation
19) _________ funds provide higher returns to
investors as compared to stocks.
a) hedge
b) private equity
c) real estate
d) precious metals
20) Managed future refer to ________ management
which primarily invests in fulfilling the investor demand.
a) assets
b) equity
c) property
d) stock
21) ___________ refers to acquisition of a
company or a part of company with the help of debt capital
a) mezzanine capital
b) angel capital
c) leverage buyout
d) fund of fund
22) _________ gold can be easily converted into
cash.
a) tool for hedging
b) high liquidity
c) exchange traded
d) correlation
23) _________ like gold and silver are
attractive investment for investors.
a) precious metals
b) coins
c) art
d) antiques
24) _______ are primarily concerned about
safety and security of its members.
a) trade union
b) owner
c) investors
d) manager
25) _________ risk is the risk business suffer
by extending credit to customer.
a) market
b) credit
c) financial
d) liquidity
26) A __________ is a party that has an
interest in a company, and can either affect or be affected by the business.
a) investors
b) employees
c) customer
d) stakeholders
27)
_________ is square root of variance of rate of return.
a) standard deviations
b) mean
c) mean deviations
d) mode
28) _______ risk arises when one party fails to
fulfill its obligation.
a) counterparty risk
b) operational risk
c) strategic risk
d) business risk
29) _________
refers to maximum loss on a given assets over a given period of time at a given
confidence level.
a) standard deviations
b) value at risk (VaR)
c) variance
d) quantitative
30) _______
is widely used measure to calculate market risk of a portfolio or
security.
a) Beta
b) valu at risk
c) standard deviations
d) variance
31) __________ refers to change in output with
change in one or more input variables.
a) sensitivity
b) value
c) decision tree
d) tornado
32) ________ securities mean securities of a
company which have filed for bankruptcy or firms which are in poor financial
positions.
a) distressed
b) event-driven
c) non directional
d) directional
33) _______ are unregulated as they are mainly
for sophisticated and high net worth inventors.
a) real estate
b) hedge fund
c) private equity
d) manage future
34) A _________ is one which derived its income
mainly from regular cash flow rather than from capital appreciation.
a) core strategy
b) core plus strategy
c) value added style
d) opportunistic style
35) ________ is to reduce the overall risk
involved through diversification.
a) alternative investment
b) bonds
c) equity
d) correlation
36) ________ raises due to wrong estimate of
demand for products or services before making investment
a) commercial risk
b) political risk
c) country risk
d) reputation risk
37) All plans needs to beb________ dynamically.
a) train employees
b) formal plan
c) active
d) updated
38) Lenders may write conditions on the
borrower called _______ into loan agreement.
a) diversification
b) derivatives
c) covenants
d) risk based
39) _________ risk is to discover recognise and
describe risk that might affect to project.
a) identify
b) analysis
c) evaluate
d) treat
40) _____________ involved the risk of changing
condition in the specific marketplace in which a company competes for business.
a) market risk
b) credit risk
c) financial risk
d) liquidity risk
41) The overall objective of risk management is
to prepare the Organization for any _______ event in business.
a) positive
b) equally
c) negative
d) ideal
42) __________ risk arises when one party fails
to fulfill its obligation.
a) system risk
b) dynamic risk
c) operation risk
d) counterparty risk
43) ________ refers to gain expected by
investors from investment made by him
a) risk
b) return
c) profit
d) loss
44) ________ is the risk that a foreign
government will default on its bonds or other financial commitment.
a) country risk
b) credit risk
c) legal risk
d) country risk
45) An ________ is risk that arise from
functioning of an organisation.
a) counterparty risk
b) operational risk
c) strategic risk
d) business risk
46) A company's ___________ risk is associated
with the company use of financial leverage and debt.
a) market
b) credit
c) financial
d) liquidity
47) Uncertainty cannot be _________
a) measured
b) control
c) uncontrollable
d) assigned
48) ________ is defined as possible source of
loss that may come from the search of an unsuccessful business plan.
a) strategic risk
b) system risk
c) dynamic risk
d) operation risk
49) ______ refers to risk arising from
political instability in a country or sudden change in policies of a country
due to change in government.
a) political risk
b) environment risk
c) legal risk
d) technology risk
50) Risk ______ amount of risk an organisation
can actually bear.
a) target
b) capacity
c) attitude
d) tolerance
SUB:VENTURE CAPTIAL AND PRIVATE EQUITY
MCQ(50
Questions)
1.The term ___refers financial investment in a
highly risky and growth oriented venture with the objective of earning a high rate of return.
a.venture
capital()
b.Merchant Banking () c..Leasing () d.LBO()
2.________is a road towards a high growth economy.
a.venture
capital() b.Merchant banking() c.Leasing
d.LBO()
3._______act as an intermediary to link up the
sources of ideas and the sources of fund.
a.venture
capital() b.Merchant banking () c.Leasing()
d.Growth()
4.__________is needed for developing a product
in the initial stages.
a.Seed
capital () b.Start-up capital() c.Second round
financing d.LBO
5.The Purpose of valuation is to assess
the_________and viability of the venture and to divide of the percentage of the
VCF ownership in the new venture.
a.Profitability() b.Feasibility() c.Availability() d.Realibility()
6.____firms provides loan finance that is
halfway between equity and secured debt.
a.Mezzanine() b.Leverage buyout()
c.Venture capital() d.Private equity ()
7.___are equity shares with special rights for
example they may be entitled to a fixed dividend or share of the profits.
a.Preferred
ordinary shares()
b.Venture capital ()
c.Private equity () d.preference shares()
8._______are in the business of promoting
growth in the companies they invest in and managing the associated risk to
protect and enhance their investors capital.
a.Venture
capitalists ()
b.Private equity() c.Mezzanine() d.LBO()
9._____provides long-term committed share
capital , to help unquoted companies grow and succeed.
a.Venture
capital() b.Private equity() c.LBO() d.feasibility()
10.______is a broad term that refers to any
type of non-pubic ownership equity securities that are not listed on a public
exchange.
a.Private
equity () b.Venture capital() c.LBO()
d.Mezzanine()
11._______sits between public equity and
outright ownership in terms of the
investment horizon and the degree of corporate control.
a.Venture capital() b.Private equity() c.Growth capital() d.LBO()
12.A_____is a form of investment club in which
the principal investors are institutional investors such as pension
funds,investment funds,endownment funds,insurance companies,banks,family
offices/high net worth individuals and funds, as well as the private equity
fund managers themselves,
a.Equity fund() b.Private equity
firm()
c.Debt
fund () d.Private equity fund()
13.Private equity is a____investment fund, as
its current market price cannot be easily determined and cannot be transferred
for a certain period of time.
a.Close
ended()
b.Open ended() c.Fund () d.Active()
14.________is an open-ended investment fund
where there is no restriction on the transferability of funds and assets are
readily marked to market.
a.Venture
capital() b.Private equity() c.Growth capital() d.LBO()
15.Intermediaries possess professional
expertise and play a promotional role in organizing a perfect match between the
supply and demand for capital in the market.
a.Issures() b.Investors() c.Intermediaries
() d.Venture capitalist()
16._____invest in technology,bio-tech companies
mostly.
a.Venture
capital() b,LBO()
c.Growth capital() d.Limited partners()
17_______aims at reducing risk, enhance returns
and minimize the correlation with equity and bond markets.
a.Hedge
funds()
b.Growth capital() c.LBO() d.Venture capital()
18.________are vital link between
investor,issuer and regulator,the objective of these intermediaries is to
smoothen the process of investment and to establish a link between the
investors and the users of funds.
a.Intermediaries
() b.Regular ()
c.LBO() d.Venture capital()
19._______typically are made up of endownments,
pensions, high net worth individuals, and institutional capital.
a.Limited
partners() b.unlimited
partners() c.Agent() d.Principal()
20.__________in the Private equity market vary
widely in size and the reasons for raising capital as well as in other ways.
a.Issuers()
b.Owner () c.Shareholder () d.Debt()
21.______is a medium to long term financial
investment provided in return for equity in a company that is typically not
listed on an exchange.
a.Private
equity() b.Limited partner() c.Owner()
d.co-owner()
22.__________captial is raised to buy equity
stakes in high potential companies.
a.Venture capital() b.Private
equity() c.Growth capital() d.Mezzanine()
23.Under _____fund structure an investment vehicle in the form of a limited liability
company or limited liability partnership organized in an offshore tax
favourable jurisdiction makes portfolio investmens into Indian Companies.
a.Offshore() b.Co-investment() c.Unified() d.Mezzanine()
24.A_____________structure is combination of
offshore and domestic investment, two separate pools of capital for offshore
investors as well as domestic investors are been raised.
a.Off-shore() b.Co-investment () c.unified() d.Mezzanine()
25.________structure is generally used where
domestic investors are also expected to participate in the fund.
a.off-shore () b.Co-investment () c.Unified() d.Mezzanine()
26.Private equity funds typically operate as a
limited partnership which is controlled by a private equity firm referred to as
the _________
a.Limited partner() b.General partner()
c.Investment partner() d.Sleeping partner()
27.The________has unlimited liability with regard
to third parties.
a.General
Partners() b.Limited partner()
c.Investment partner() d.Dormant()
28.PE fund generally disposes of the
investments within relative time frame of_________years from investment.
a.-3
to5() b.-4
to 7() c.-6 to 6() d.-2 to 4()
29.Under offshore fund structure,an investment
vehicle in the tax favourable jurisdiction makes portfolio investments into
Indian Companies. a.Limited Liability
() b.unlimited Limited ()
c.Joint and several() d.non liability()
30.A____is combination of offshore and domestic investment two separate pools of
capital for offshore investors as well as domestic investors are been raised.
a.Co-investment
structure() b.Co-Partner()
c.offshore()
d.General partner()
31.In unified structure, a domestic investment vehicle is established in India
preferably as a trust (alternatively, as a company) in addition to
the__________fund.
a.Offshore() b.Limited Liability() c.unlimited capital() d.creditors()
32._________valuation is the act or process of
assessing value or price of financial asset or liability.
a.Business
() b.Financial ()
c.Share() d.Debenture()
33.The”_________”is expected to compensate
investors for giving up access to their capital.
a.Returns ()
b.Illiquidity premium() c.Profits
() d.Money()
34.The______trade off is an effort to achieve a
business between the desire for the lowest possible risk and the highest
possible return.
a.Risk ()
b.Return() c.Risk-return ()
d.Dividend()
35._____mutiple is commonly based on an
assumptions as to the ‘normalised’level of earnings that can be generated from
that revenue.
a.income() b.Revenue()
c.sponsor () d.Profit()
36.The________concerns expected earnings at the
initial stage and also at the time of quitting the borrowing concern will be
taken into considerations.
a.Lending()
b.Borrowing() c.IPO() d.Revenue()
37.There are various types of risk involved
in__such as counterparty risk,market risk, liquidity risk, legal,
regulatory,funding risk.
a.Private
equity()
b.LBO() c.Mezzanine() d.Dividend()
38.Low risks are associated with low potential
returns,High risks are associated with high potential returns,termed
as__________
a.risk
return trade() b.private equity() c.Growth capital() d.Low risk()
39.There are three methods for___of private
equity as conventional method, first Chicago method and revenue multiplier
method.
a.Valuation() b.Asset () c.Goodwill() d.Funding()
40.Business valuation is the act or process of
assessing value or price of financial________
a.Valuation() b.Asset
or liability() c.Cash() d.Creditors()
41._______is the risk that an investor is not
able to pay their capital commitments to a private equity fund in accordance
with the terms of their obligations to do so.
a.Funding
risk()
b.Balance sheet () c.Cash() d.Debtors()
42.The term P/E refers to______
a.Price
earnings ratio () b.Profit earning ratio()
c.Private earning ratio() d.Public earning ratio()
43.FEMA Regulations came into force from the
year_
a.2000() b.2001() c.1999() d.2020()
44.SPV stands for________
a.Special
Purpose Vehicle() b.Special Private Vehicle()
c.Special Process value() d.Status purpose value()
45.LP stands for____
a.Limited
partners ()
b.Liabilities partner()
c.Less Paid() d.Lock partners()
46.FPI stands for_________
a.Foreign
portfolio investment()
b.Funded Portfolio investment()
c.Flash private investment()
d.Foreign public investment()
47.Private Equity Lock in period is _______
a.10years
() b.5years() c.6years () d.1years()
48.Private equity funding structure______
a.Equity
and debt ()
b.Debt() c.Equity() d.Bonds()
49.Venture capital funding structure________
a.Equity and debt () b.Debt() c.Equity() d.Preferecne()
50.SEBI(venture capital funds) Regulated from
a.1996() b.1992() c.1982() d.2002()
CLASS: TYBFM
SUBJECT:INDIRECT TAX
1. GST
stands for _______________
A]
Goods and Supply Tax B] Goods and
Sales Tax
C] Goods and Services Tax D] Goods and Simple Tax
2. In India, GST structure is _______ in
nature.
A] Dual B] single C]
triple D] quadruple
3.GST was introduced in India
on ?
A]
1-4-2017 B] 01-07-2017 C] 01-03-2017 D] 01-05-2017
4. Supply of following is not liable to
GST
A] Alcoholic liquor for medicinal consumption B] Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
C] Alcoholic
liquor for industrial consumption
D] Alcoholic liquor for animal
consumption
5. HSN code stands for :
A] Harmonised system number B] Home Shopping Network C] Home State Number
D] Harmonised System of Nomenclature
6. The item which will be
taxable under both GST as well Central
Excise Law even after
implementation of the GST Act.
A] motor spirit B] natural gas C] Tobacco and Tobacco
products
D] Alcoholic liquor for human
consumption
7. Which of the following taxes have
not been subsumed under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C] Service tax D] Stamp duty
8. The __________ is the chairperson is
GST council.
A] Union Finance Minister B] State
Finance minister C] President D] Home minister
9. Compensation under Goods And Service Tax Compensation Act,
2017,will be provided to a state for a period of ______ years from the date on which the state brings its SGST
act into force.
A] Three B]Four C]Five
D]Two
10. Gifts not exceeding
__________ in value in a financial year
by an employer to an employee
shall not be treated as supply
of goods or both.
A] 50,000
B]60,000 C]70,000 D]35,000
11. Temporary transfer or permitting the use
or enjoyment of any intellectual
property
right shall be
treated as __________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
12. Renting of immovable
property is ___________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
13. Services of funeral,
burial , crematorium or mortuary including transportation of
the deceased shall be treated as ___________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
14. ______________ means a
supply made by a taxable person to a
recipient consisting of two or more
taxable supplies of goods and services or both, or any combination thereof ,
which are naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the
ordinary course of
business, one of which is
principal supply.
A] Composite supply B]
Principal supply C] mixed supply D] inward supply
15. Persons shall be deemed to
be “related persons” if any person directly or indirectly owns,controls or
holds _______ or more of the outstanding voting stock or
shares or both of them.
A]35% B]40% C]50% D]25%
16. Development, design,
programming, customization, adaption , upgradation ,
enhancement , implementation of information
technology software shall be treated as____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
17. The functions performed by
members of Parliament, Members of State Legislature, Members of Gram Panchayat
and other local authorities shall be treated as______________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
18. _____________ means two or
more individual supplies of goods or services, or any combination thereof, made
in conjunction with each other by a taxable person for a single price where
such supply does not constitute a composite supply.
A] Composite supply B]
Principal supply C] mixed supply D] inward supply
19. ________ is levied on
inter state supply of goods.
A]CGST B] SGST
C]IGST D]UTGST
20. Agreeing to an obligation
to refrain from an act , or to tolerate an act or a situation or
to do an act is _________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply
of goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
21. IGST means_______________
.
A] Inter- state GST B] Integrated GST C] Import GST D] International GST
22. Which of the following is
a composite supply?
A] Doctor's service with
medicines B] package with fruits and chocolates
C] supply of computer printer
with laptop D] coaching centre with monthly excursions on trekking
23. GST is ____________ .
A] direct tax B] destination based C] foreign tax
D]Origin based
24. ___________ is levied on
Intra State supplies of Goods / Services.
A] Only CGST B] IGST C] Only SGST D] Both CGST &
SGST
25. An Intra State supply
within Union Territory will be subject to levy of ____________
A] IGST B]CGST & SGST C] UTGST & CGST D] Exempt
26. In GST taxable event is
_____________
A] Manufacture B] Sale C]
Barter D]Supply
27. Direct taxes are
____________ in nature
A] Regressive B]
progressive C] Tax on tax D] value added tax
28. Indirect taxes are
____________ in nature
A] Regressive B]
progressive C] Tax on tax D] value added tax
29. Any transfer of the title
in goods is a supply of ____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
30. ____________ specifies the
activities which are treated as supply even if
made without consideration
A] Schedule I of CGST Act B] Schedule II of CGST Act
C] Schedule III of CGST Act
D] Schedule IV of CGST Act
31. . _____________ consists
of activities or transactions which shall be treated neither supply of goods nor a supply of
services.
A] Schedule I of CGST Act B] Schedule II of CGST Act
C] Schedule III of CGST Act
D] Schedule IV of CGST Act
32. Services by any court or tribunal established under any law for the time being
in force are
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
33. Actionable claims ,other than betting,
gambling and lottery shall be treated as ____________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
34. Hire purchase of goods is ___________
A] supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D] either supply of goods or a
supply of service
35. A Mobile phone is sold
with a mobile charger to a customer for a Rs.60,000. The CGST and SGST laptop is 18% and for laptop bag is 28%. What
would be applicable rate of tax
leviable?
A] 46% B]28% C]18% D]0%
36. GST is a national level
tax based on __________
A] last point of tax principle
B] first point of tax principle C] value added principle
D]value deducted principle
37. Shoppers stop Ltd offers a
combo pack of shirt, wallet and perfume for Rs.2000. The rate of tax for shirt, wallet and perfume are 12%,5% and 10%
respectively. The applicable rate of tax for the combo pack will be _____
A] 10% B]5% C]27% D]12%
38. . The idea of GST in India
was first mooted by _____________.
A]Kishan task force B]Kelkar
task force C]Congress task force D]BJP task force
39. Which of the following taxes have not been subsumed under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C] Electricity duty d]Central
sales tax
40. Which of the following taxes have not been subsumed under GST?
A] VAT B] luxury tax C]octroi duty d]Profession tax
41.
____________ has been appointed as the Managed service provider of GSTN.
A]
Infosys B]TCS
C]Reliance Ltd D]RBI
42.
GSTN stands for _____________
A]Goods
and service tax number B]Goods and service tax network C]Goods and
service tax note
D]Goods
and service tax nation
43.
The quorum of GST council meeting is _________ of members.
A]20%
B]30% C]50% D]60%
44.
The CGST Act,2017 extends to _______________
A]
Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir
B]Whole
of India
C]
Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir and Union Territories
D]
Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir but including Union Territories
45.
GST council was formed under article __________
A]229B B]279C C]297A D]279A
46.____________
petroleum products have been temporarily been kept out of GST.
A] One
B]Two C] Five D]Four
47. An
easement to occupy land is supply of
___________
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service
C] neither supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
48.
Transfer or disposal of goods forming part of the assets of the business is
________________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C] neither supply of
goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
49.
Sale of land is _____________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C]
neither supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
either supply of goods or a supply of service
50.
Supply of warehoused goods to any person before clearance for home consumption
is _______________.
A]
supply of goods B] supply of service C]
either supply of goods nor supply of service
D]
neither supply of goods or a supply of service
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