TYBSC IT - SEM VI - MCQ
MCQ ........
Multiple ........
Choice.........
Questions....
SAMPLE MCQ
AS PER UNIVERSITY OF MUMBAI
SYLLABUS
Will be helpful to
regular students of Mumbai university colleges who are going to give the online
examinations of SEM II, SEM IV and SEM V
class of students.
If it is helpful to you
so also share it among your friends so that they will be also benefited from
it.
ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD
CLASS:
T.Y.B.SCIT-VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : SECURITY IN COMPUTING
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1) which points will not consider in Maintenance for
security in computing
a)
Procedure b)Policy enforcement
c)Security awareness program d)Ongoing guidance
2)
________attack attempts to learn or make use of information from the system but
does not affect resources.
a) Active Attack b)
passive Attack c) Denial Attack d) User Attack
3)
___________ is a measure how easily data and software can be transferred from
one organization to other organization
a) Carriers b) Transport c) Portability d) Connection
4) Security ____the day to day practices of the individuals
and technology assigned to the protection of assets
a) Strategy b)
Tactics c)Defense d) Determine
5)A security _____ is the definition of all the
architecture and policy components that malware a complete plan for defense
detection
a)
Strategy b)
Tactics c)Defense d) Determine
6)
____is the process of identifying presence of some malicious activity which is
concealed
a) Detection b) Deterrence c) Defense d) Distributed
7)Common function of ____include stealing data and
password, providing
remote access
a) Virus b) Worm c)
Ransomware d) Trojan
8) ____ typically arrive in document executable file and
e-mail
a)Trojan b)Virus
c)worm d) Passive attack
9) A ___ is self replicating program that uses other host
files or code to replicate
a)
Virus b) malware c) worm d) Ransomware
10) A computer ___ uses it own coding to replicate
a) Virus b) malware c)
worm d)Ransomware
11) _____ work by passing as legitimate programs that are
activated by an unsuspecting user
a)
Trojan b)Virus c)Worm d)Malware
12)____ is also known as BACKDOOR for Computer System
a)
Trojan b)Virus c)Worm d)Malware
13)_____ attack floods the intended victim computer with so
much traffic legitimate or malformed that it becomes over utilized or lacks up,
denying legitimate connections
a) Virus b) Zombie Trojan
c) DDoS d)WORM
14)The use of sophisticated malware for targeted cybercrime
is known as ______
a)
Advance Persistent Threats (APT) b)
Zombie attack
c) DDoS d)
Bounty program
15)
________ means that only the authorized individual or system can view sensitive
information
a)
Confidentiality b) Integrity c) Availability d) Accesibility
16)Protocol anomaly attacks is net attacks is _______attack
a)
Network layer b)
Physical layer c)Data Link Layer d) Logical layer
17)Which one is not application layer attack
a) Content attack b)
Buffer Overflows c)Passwords d) MAC
18) MAC is ____
a) Malware Access Control b) Mass Accesses Control
c)
Media Access Control d) Medium Access Control
19) Which one not MITM attack
a) MAC flooding b) ARP Poisoning
c)
DHCP Poisoning d) Password cracking
20)Evil Twin is ____
a) Application Layer attack b) Network Layer attack
c) Physical
Layer attack d) Wireless Layer attack
21)In CIA triad of security “C” represents
a) Communication b) Control c)
Confidentiality d) Connection
22) ____ Which is particularly relevant to data, refers to
the assurance that the data has not been altered in an authorized way
a) Confidentiality b)
Integrity c) Availability d) Non-Repudiation
23)_____ refers to the restriction of access to data only
to these who are authorized to use it
a)
Confidentiality b)
Integrity c) Availability d) Non-Repudiation
24) The most common form of defence known as PERIMETER
SECURITY follows which model
a)
Lollipop model b)
Onion model c) CIA triad model d) ISO model
25)In ____ model once the hard crunchy exterior is cracked,
the soft, chewy centre is exposed, hence Security is compromised.
a)
Lollipop model b)
Onion model c) CIA triad model d) ISO
model
26)Layered strategy follows which model
a) Lollipop
model b) Onion model c) CIA triad model d) ISO model
27) Which security model provides multiple of protection
against internal and external threats
a)
Layered b) Perimeter
c) Defence d) CIA Triad
28) ACL is ___
a)Access Control Limit b)Access Control List
c)Advance Control Limit d)Access Control Link
29) ____and ____ can be used to control intercommunication
between network levels based on authorization rules defined in the security architecture.
a) SaaS Service and Cloud Service b)
ACL and Firewall
c) Internet bridge and business group d) CIA triad model and ISO model
30)Online Transaction is example of ___
a) Communication model
b) Security model
c) Workstation d) Zone of trust
31)
________refers to the ability of the organization that allows it to respond
rapidly to the changes in the external and internal environment
a)
Business Agility b) Portability
c) Cost Reduction d) Security Methodolog
32)
_______is a malware that is disguised as legitimate software and which can be
used to gain backdoor access to users computer
a) Worms b) Trojan c) Virus d)passive attack
33)
Kerberos is a method of _________ .
a) Authentication b) Authorization c) Non-repudiation d) Accountability
34)
FTP is ___
a)
File Transfer Protocol b)
File Transport Protocol
c)File Transmission Protocol d)Folder Transfer Protocol
35) SSL is ___
a) Secure Socket
Layer b) Secure Shell Layer
c) Security Shell
Layer d) Secure Shell Limit
36)___and ___ helps to encrypt the traffic in FTP
a) SSL
and Digital Certificate b)
SSH and
Digital Certificate
c) FTP and Digital Certificate d)
UDP and TCP
37) EFS is____
a) Encrypting Folder Session b) Encoded Folder Session
c) Encryption File System d) Encoded File System
38)___ encrypts and decrypts protected files and folder
online
a) EFS b) FTP
c) EPS d) UDP
39) ___ will automatically generate public and private key
a) EFS b) FTP
c) EPS d) UDP
40) ___means that the receiver is ensured that the message
is coming from intended sender not an imposer
a) Confidentiality b)
Integrity
c)
Authentication
d) Non-Repudiation
41) Which one is not Authentication method
a) Biometrics
b) Email c) OTP d) API Authentication
42)What is Process of identifying an individual
a)
Authentication b) Authorization c) accounting d) auditing
43) What do you call the process in which a user is
identified via a username and password
a)
Authentication b)
Authorization c) accounting d) auditing
44)Which Process of giving individual accesses to system or
recourses
a) Authentication b) Authorization c) accounting d) auditing
45)What process prevent someone from denying that he/she
accessed resources
a)
Authentication b)
Authorization c) Accounting d) Non-Repudiation
46)Which of the following is a secret numeric password used
for authentication
a) Security token
b) Digital Certificate c) Digital Signature d)
PIN
47) What type of electronic document contains a public key
a) Biometrics
b) Digital Certificate c) PIN d) PAN
48) What type authentication method identifies and
recognizes people based on physical traits such as fingerprints
a) Digital
Certificate b) biometrics c) WEP d) RADIUS
49)what is the process converting data into a format that
can not read by another user.
a)
Encryption b)
Locking c) Registering d) Keying
50) _____ is
authentication method which require
password, Security token ,biometric.
a) Biometric method b) Mobile
Authentication method
c) Three factor authentication method d) multifactor authentication method
CLASS:
T.Y.B.SCIT-VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : SOFTWARE QUALITY ASSURANCE
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
1
.Which of the following is included in failure costs?
a) rework b) repair c) failure mode analysis
d)Internal failure cost
2
. Which requirements are the foundation from
which quality is measured?
a) Hardware b) Software c) Programmers d) Customers
3.
Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
4.
Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a)
Quality Control b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d)
Testing Control
5.
Which of the following is not
included in External failure costs?
a)testing b) help line support c) warranty
work d) complaint resolution
6.
Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection b)
maintenance
c) quality planning d) testing
7.
Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager b) Project
team c)SQA group d)Team leader
8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find ___ during the process so that they do not become defects
after release of the software.
a) errors b) equivalent faults c) failure cause
d) defect
9.
What is not
included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning b) formal technical
reviews
c) test equipment d)equipment calibration and maintenance
10. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a) SQA b)SQM c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
11.
Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction following which one does not include
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
b) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) Product with failure
12.
Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
a) Prevention b) Internal Failure c) External
Failure d) Appraisal
13.
What is Six Sigma?
a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
d) A Formal
Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
14.
Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
a) Define
b) Control c) Measure d) Analyse
15.
Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
a) Software availability b)
Software reliability c) Software failure
d)Software complexity
16.
What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a) Prevention b) Internal Failure c) External Failure d) Appraisal
17.
The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as
a) Quality of design b)
Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing d) Quality
of reliability
18.
According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?
a)Process control b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming product d) Servicing
19.
Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) Other stakeholder
20.
Boundary value analysis
belong to?
a) White Box Testing b)
Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing d) Maintain testing
21.
Following which one is not type of
Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing c) Integration Testing d) Team
testing
22.
Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing c) Condition
Coverage d)Error guessing.
23.
Exhaustive testing
is
a) always possible b) practically possible
c)
impractical but possible d) impractical and impossible
24.
White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique d) Statement Testing
25.
Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken
code b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage
of all projects d) delivering
project to customer
26.
The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing b) White box testing
b) Red box testing d) Green box testing
27.
Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing b) White
box testing c) Alpha Testing d) Beta
testing
28.
Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a)
Black box testing b) Performance testing c) Unit testing
d) Grey
testing
29.
Beta testing is done at
a)User‟s end
b)
Developer‟s end
c)
User‟s & Developer‟s end
d) Coder’s end
30.
Unit testing is done by
a) Users b) Developers c) Customers d) Stakeholders
31.
Behavioral testing is____
a)
White box testing b) Black box testing c) Grey box testing
d) Grey
testing
32.
Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis d) Control
flow testing.
33. What is the main purpose of integration testing?
a) Design errors b) Interface errors c) Procedure
errors d) Decoding error
34.
Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under which type of testing?
a) Integration testing b) Validation testing c) Unit testing d) Regression
testing
35. When the Testing Principles are useful while building the Software Product?
a)
During testing b) During execution c) During review
d) Throughout life-cycle
36.
Which of the following
is the form
of Alpha and Beta Testing?
a)
Acceptance Testing b) System Testing
c) Unit Testing d) Integration Testing
37) Which of the following is a myth in testing?
a) Tester can find bugs b) Any user can test software
c) Missed defects are not due to testers
d) Complete testing is not possible
38)
SDLC stands for ________
a ) Software development life cycle b) System
development life cycle
c) Software design life cycle d) System
design life cycle
39) -------- is not a Test Document.
a)Test Policy b) Test Case
c) PIN ( Project Initiation Note) d)
RTM (Requirement Traceability matrix)
40) ----------- is the application of quality principles to all facets and business process of an organization.
a) TQM b) Software Testing c) Software tools d) hardware
41) V- model uses
following test models are ______
a)
Component testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing
b)
alpha testing, beta testing , acceptance testing and user testing
c)
black box testing,
white box testing
and gray box testing
d) alpha testing, beta testing , acceptance testing and acceptance
r testing
42) ______
is dummy model for your actual model
a)
V-V model
b) Prototype model c) Spiral model d) SDLC
43) Following which is not type of Prototype model
a)
Throwaway b) Evolutionary c) Incremental d)
Extra model
44) Following
which one is used for raising awareness in testing
a) good
communication scale b) understanding the
business needs
c)
Contiguous learning d) Quality
45)
following which is not type of defect
a) wrong
b) missing c) extra d) software complexity
46) Cost of quality(COQ) =
a) Cost
of Control + Appraisal Cost
b) Cost
of Control + Cost of failure of control
c) Cost
of Control + Prevention Cost
d) Cost
of Internal failure + Cost of External failure
47) _____
is a type of software testing where we change certain statement in the source
code and if the test cases are able to find the errors
a)
Integration testing b) Validation testing c) Mutation
testing d) Regression
testing
48) following which one is SQA goals
a) Education b) Security management c) Design ability d)
safety
49) TQM
stands for ______
a) Total
Quality Metric b) Total Quality
Management
c) Total
Quantity Management d) Total
Quantity Metric
50)
______ ensure that each function or performance characteristic conforms to its
specification
a) Integration testing
b) Validation testing c) Unit testing d) Regression testing
CLASS:
T.Y.B.SCIT-VI SEM REGULAR
SUB : CYBER LAW
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
|
1 |
The issues addressed
by Cyber Law include a)
Traditional commerce b)
Intellectual property c)
Stalking d)
Physical Assault |
|
2 |
In India , the
primary legislation for cybercrimes as well as electronic commerce is a)
Information Act 2000 b)
Intellectual property Act c)
IPC d)
Copyright act |
|
3 |
Which US President ,
had announced a public private sector joint initiative to protect US
information from hackers and viruses a)
Barack Obama b)
Bill Clinton c)
Dr. Nuker d)
Nelson |
|
4 |
Offences in which
arrest without warrant is provided are called a)
Non cognizable offences b)
Cognizable offences c)
IPC d)
Copyright |
|
5 |
Following comes under
cognizable offences a)
Dowry death , murder, kidnapping b)
Assault c)
Cheating d)
Defamation |
|
6 |
Which section of IT
Act deals with issues of Hacking of
computer system a)
Section 66 b)
Section 68 c)
Section 67 d)
Section 80 |
|
7 |
Which section of IT
Act deals with breach of confidentiality and privacy a)
Section 71 b)
Section 72 c)
Section 66 d)
Section 80 |
|
8 |
The Information
Technology Act (2000) was amended by a)
Information Technology Act (2001) b)
Information Technology Act (2015) c)
Information Technology Act (2008) d)
Information Technology Act (2018) |
|
9 |
Hacking with computer
system comes under a)
Cognizable crime b)
Non cognizable crime c)
trademark law d)
Copyright |
|
10 |
In cognizable case
the police initiate the investigation ______ and do not require the
permission of the court a)
on its own b)
on demand by culprit c)
on demand by complainant d)
by order of SP |
|
11 |
For cognizable
offence following is require a)
FIR and complaint b)
Complaint only c)
Complaint and proof d)
Letter from SP |
|
12 |
The term cyberspace
signify everything related to ___________ a)
to computers , websites b)
documents c)
stalking d)
criminals |
|
13 |
Salient features of
IT Act are a)
The act gives legal recognition to all physical documents b)
The act gives legal recognition on Digital
Signatures c)
Avoid theft d)
Avoid physical assault |
|
14 |
The IT Act has
following number of chapters a)
11 b)
12 c)
13 d)
16 |
|
15 |
The IT Act has
altogether following sections a)
13 b)
26 c)
90 d)
11 |
|
16 |
Hackers which have
deep knowledge of the Internet and telecommunication systems are a)
Code hackers b)
Phreakers c)
Cyber- punks d)
stalking |
|
17 |
Hackers who
specialize in cryptography are known as a)
Code hackers b)
Phreakers c)
Cyber- punks d)
Crackers |
|
18 |
Hackers who break
into computer security are known as a)
Code hackers b)
Phreakers c)
Cyber- punks d)
Crackers |
|
19 |
A deliberate
deception to secure unfair or unlawful gain or to deprive a victim of a legal
right is called a)
Hacking b)
Fraud c)
Concealment d)
Theft |
|
20 |
Computer virus means
any computer instruction , data or programme that a)
Destroys , damages or degrades the
performance of a computer resource b)
Checks login name and password c)
Does key logging d)
Sits idle without harming system |
|
21 |
Computer containment
means any set of computer instructions that are designed to a)
Modify , destroy , record , transmit data or
programme residing within a computer . b)
Stealing of computer hardware c)
Sniffing and spoofing d)
Concealing the contents |
|
22 |
Injury done to the
reputation of a person is called as a)
Cheating b)
Defamation c)
Harassment d)
Sniffing |
|
23 |
Publishing or
transmitting of material depicting children in sexually explicit act etc , in
electronic form is a)
Harassment b)
Cyber pornography c)
Virus attack d)
Trojan |
|
24 |
The intermediaries
who provide network technology services to users of the internet are called a)
Network service providers b)
DNS c)
IP d)
Hackers |
|
25 |
The weapons with
which cyber- crimes are committed are a)
Mobile b)
Technology c)
Email d)
Hacking |
|
26 |
More teenage are
attracted to cyber crime as a)
It is a part of their syllabus b)
They want to demonstrate their knowledge of
internet and programming. c)
They consider it ethical d)
they don’t have complete programming knowledge so do it
by mistake |
|
27 |
In _____ we buy ,
sell or render services in the internet a)
Ecommerce b)
commerce c)
EDI d)
Type and click |
|
28 |
Click wrap agreements
can be of the following type a)
Type and click b)
Pointer click c)
Drag and click d)
Push and click |
|
29 |
A click wrap contract
is a)
Scrap it b)
Take it or leave it c)
Take it only d)
leave it always |
|
30 |
The type of agreement
wherein the user can see the contract only after opening the product is a)
Click wrap b)
Shrink wrap c)
take it type d)
leave it type |
|
31 |
For the cyber world ,
Section 11 of the IT Act 2000 provides that an e-record would be attributed
to the originator , if it was sent by a)
The receiver itself b)
A person who had the authority to act on
behalf of the originator in respect of the electronic record c)
The deceased person d)
The ISP |
|
32 |
Agreements declared
void under the Act are summarized as follows: Where the
consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful . an agreement is
unlawful if a)
It is allowed by law b)
It is of such a nature that , if permitted,
it would defeat the provisions of any law or is fraudulent c)
It involved or implies , no harm or injury to person or
property of another d)
no rules as such |
|
32 |
Consumer foram have
the power to grant the following relief : a)
to replace the goods with new goods b)
to cause or injure the suppliers in case he doesn’t
replace good c)
to seize the supplier place d)
to offer hazardous
goods for sale |
|
34 |
E-Commerce is about
using technology to streamline business model with following feature : a)
High costs b)
More responsive relationships with customers
, suppliers and partners c)
Lack of efficiency d)
Less responsive |
|
35 |
In India the law of
contracts is stated in a)
The American contract act b)
The Indian contract Act 1872 c)
Copyright act d)
Sales of goods act |
|
36 |
The
type of agreement mostly found as the installation process of software
packages : a)
Click wrap b)
Shrink wrap c)
Open source d)
Close source |
|
37 |
When one person signifies
to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a
with to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence , he is
said to make a ____ a)
deal b)
proposal c)
agreement d)
NDA |
|
38 |
The person making the
proposal for the contract is called a)
promisor b)
promise c)
agreement d)
mediator |
|
39 |
Every promise and
every set of promises , forming the consideration for each other is called a)
promise b)
agreement c)
legal d)
shrink wrap |
|
40 |
An agreement not
enforceable by law is said to be ___ a)
void b)
crime c)
agreement d)
legal |
|
41 |
An agreement
enforceable by law is a __________ a)
promise b)
contract c)
NDA d)
patent |
|
42 |
Following comes under
unfair trade practices a)
to sell genuine product b)
making false representation of product
through advertisements c)
using registered trademark d)
using patented products
|
|
43 |
A legal contract
between two parties that outlines confidential material , knowledge or
information that the parities with to share with one another but wish to
restrict access to or by third parties is a)
Warranty b)
Contract c)
Non disclosure Agreement d)
Agreement |
|
44 |
An NDA creates a
____________relationship between the parties to protect any type of
confidential and proprietary information or trade secrets a)
confidential b)
non repudiation c)
integrated d)
unfair |
|
45 |
A ___________is the
legal contract between the licensor and/or author and purchase of the
software which establish the purchaser’s right a)
leave licence b)
software license agreement c)
open source agreement d)
copyright agreement |
|
46 |
UCC Stands for a)
uniform commercial code b)
universe commerce conduct c)
universe contract
code d)
uniform code conduct |
|
47 |
Jurisdiction based
upon monetary limits is known as a)
pecuniary b)
territorial c)
subject matter d)
court |
|
48 |
Jurisdiction based on
certain subject is known as a)
pecuniary b)
territorial c)
subject matter d)
agreement |
|
49 |
The fact or facts
which give a person to right to seek judicial relief is called a)
FIR b)
Cause of action c)
Territorial jurisdiction d)
Agreement |
|
50 |
Which of the
following is not a type of cyber crime? |
CLASS:
T.Y.B.SCIT-VI SEM REGULAR
|
SUB : Business Intelligence
MCQ
(50 QUESTIONS)
SUB: PRINCIPLES OF GIS
CLASS
TEST : 50 QUESTIONS
1. _____COMPONENT OF GIS. a. Space b.
Graph c. Network d. Login
2. GI Science majorly
contributing________ a. Data
b. Computer Science c. Factory d. Coding 3. ________ is a database system. a. Spatial Database b. Special Database c. Data Warehouse d.
Geographical Database 4. SDT
Means ___________ a. Specific Data Type b. Special Data Type c. Spatial Data Type d. System Data Type 5. Basic
Unit of Spatial Information is a. Point, Line, Arc b. Data c. Graph d.
Design 6.Which
one of this is not main component of GIS? a. People b.
Data c. Software d. Snip tool 7.GIS
stands for __ a. Geographic Information System b. Generic
Information System c. Geological
Information System d. Geographic Information Sharing 8. Which
is not key component of “Spatial Data Quality”? a. Geodatabases b. Positional Accuracy c. Temporal accuracy d. Logical Consistency
9.What
is model? a. The process of producing an abstraction of
the ‘real world’ b. Representation of Geographic phenomenon c. The process of producing an abstraction of
the ‘real world’ and Representation of Geographic phenomenon d. Building 10.Once
the data is entered it must be _______ and ______ a. Capture and organised b. Verified and edited c. Verified and Generalised d. Edited and organised 11. Which
one of this is not main component of GIS? a. People b.
Data c. Software d. Snip tool 12.The
_phase deals with putting it all together into a format that communicates the
result of data analysis in the best possible way. a. Data capture and preparation b. Data management c. Data manipulation and Analysis d. Data Presentation
13.______
Refers to the spatial relationship between geographical elements in a data set
that do not change under a continuous transformation. a. Modeling b.
Topology c. Shapefile d. Node 14.______
type of tessellation. a. Regular tessellation b. Irregular tessellation c. Regular tessellation and Irregular
tessellation d. Graphic Tessellation 15.A
GIS is computer based system that provides a. Data Capturing, preparation,
management, storage, manipulation and presentation. b. Data c. Presentation
d. Cleaning 16.A
process that can be named Georeferenced assigned a time interval is known as a. Georeferencing b. Geographic phenomenon c. Geographic information system d. Global positioning system 17.Partition
of space into mutually exclusive cell is known as __ a. Tessellation b. Tracking c. Thematic study d. Tier I study 18. Which
is not field type in GIS? a. Text
b. Decimal c.
Date d.
Double
19.The
most common tessellations are __ a. a solid, opaque, transparent b. Blue, green, brown c. Square cells, hexagonal cells,
triangular cells d. a
solid, opaque, transparent, Blue, green, brown, Square cells, hexagonal cells,
triangular cells 20.Tessellations
are also known as ___ a. Volumes b.
Rasters c. Code I d.Type II 21.The
following is an example of “geographical fields” a. Points b.
Lines c. Elevation
d. Polygons 22.By
‘Spatial data’ we mean data that has__ a. Complex values b. Positional Values c. Graphical Values d. Decimal Values 23.TIN
stands for _ a. Traffic Internet Network b. Triangulated Irregular Network c. Temporal Interest Network d. Temperature Irregular Network 24.Triangulation
based on input locations with stretched
triangles that are equilateral is known as ___ a. TIN
b. Delaunay
Triangulation c. Hobson’s
Triangulation d. Isosceles
Triangulation 25. Analysis
and Visualizations of events, reading over time is known as ___ a. Multi dimension b. Temporal dimension c. Spatial dimension d. Geopositional dimension 26.Vector
representation of data includes __ a. Points, lines(arcs),polygons b. Square,
hexagon, tracks c. Rectangle, rhombus, rivers d. TIN, Delaunay triangles, tracks
27.A
coordinate based regional, local or global system used to locate geographical
entities is known as ____ a. Reference system b. Spatial Reference
System c. Interface System d. Map
System 28.Due
to irregularities or mass anomalies in the distribution, there is an undulated
surface known as ___ a. Parabola b.
Geoid c. Map d. Hyperbola 29.Which
one of the following is NOT a kind of map projection? a. Cylindrical b. Conical c. Azimuthal d. Tangential 30.While
a spheroid approximates the shape of the earth, a _________ defines the
position of the spheroid relative to the center of the earth. It provides a
frame of reference for measuring locations on the surface of the earth. a. Geoid
b. Data c.
Datum d. Polygon 31.What
is used to represent Raster data? a. Cell and grids b. Line c. Point
d. Polygon
32.How
is the boundary of the object is represented in GIS? a. Circular b.
Crisp of fuzzy c. Dotted d. Straight 33.Interpolation
is made possible by a principle called ______ a. Special b.
Spatial auto-correlational c. Relation
d. Static 34.The
coastline is having ___ a. Fuzzy Boundaries b. Crisp Boundary c. Line
d. Circle 35.What
are the Topological properties a. Boundary b. Dot c. Nodes, Lines and
polygons d. Size
36. The
science and art of map making is known as ___ a. Digital maps b. Cartography c. Accuracy d.
Structure 37.Geographic
fields can be _______ and ___ a. Raster and Grid b. Discrete and Continuous c. Fast and Slow d. Fixed and Raw 38. A
continuous Raster is also called _____ raster. a. Double point b. Floating Point c. Char Point d.
String Point 39._______
data values are values that provide a name or identifier. a. Nominal b. Ordinal c.
Ratio d. Interval 40.Which
data values refer as a qualitative data values? a. Interval and ratio b. Interval and Categorical c. Nominal and Ratio d. Nominal and Categorical 41.Quadtrees
are _____ a. Natural b.
Adaptive c. Static d. Partition 42. The
Continuous fields are represented by ________ a. TIN b. Point c. Line d.
Polygon 43.Collection
of (Connected ) lines may represents phenomenon that are best viewed as
______________ a. Graph
b. Network c. Vector d.
Raster 44.Traditional
techniques for obtaining spatial data, typically from paper sources included
___________ a. Planning b.
Manual, digitizing and scanning c. Marking
d.
Posting 45.In
GIS, data are usually grouped into ______ a. Layers b. Transaction c. Masking d.
Intersection 46.GIS
software packages provide support for _________ data. a. Spatial b.
Attribute c. Spatial and
attribute d. Parallel and intersection 47._______
representation allows easy association with attribute data. a. Vector b. Raster c.
Masking d. Interpreted 48. SDSS
stands for ______ a. Support direct stand systems b. Spatial direct and stand system c. Spatial Decision Spatial system d. Spatial decision
support system
49._________
representation is efficient for image processing . a. Manual b.
Raster c. Vector d. Formal 50. GIS
packages provide facilities to link with a ____ and ex-change attribute data
with it. a. DBMS b. Cluster c.
Files d. File system
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